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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 49

Question 480

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot.
  2. Recovery feasibility includes pre-authorized IAM roles and tested control-plane actions.
  3. Caching or read replicas can reduce repeated reads when consistency requirements permit.
  4. Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period. Relevant first evidence: Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. The resulting controlled response is: Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot. This instead addresses a different case: A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions. For the stated situation (A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.), the better principle is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period. The deciding distinction is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

B:

Recovery feasibility includes pre-authorized IAM roles and tested control-plane actions. This instead addresses a different case: The secondary service is healthy, but a disaster exercise reveals operators cannot change DNS because the failover role lacks permission. For the stated situation (A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.), the better principle is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period. The deciding distinction is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

C:

Caching or read replicas can reduce repeated reads when consistency requirements permit. This instead addresses a different case: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. For the stated situation (A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.), the better principle is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period. The deciding distinction is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

Question 481

A DevOps team is reviewing: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Preserve logical resource identity or implement a controlled migration and retention plan.
  2. Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers.
  3. Enable inventory collection and central reporting for in-scope managed nodes.
  4. Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership.
  5. Review parameter paths, KMS encryption settings and consuming IAM roles.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Preserve logical resource identity or implement a controlled migration and retention plan. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records. The complementary correct action is: Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership. Both follow the principle: IaC refactors should identify replacement and deletion consequences before execution.

D:

Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records. The complementary correct action is: Preserve logical resource identity or implement a controlled migration and retention plan. Both follow the principle: IaC refactors should identify replacement and deletion consequences before execution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. This is suitable for another situation: A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership.) and design change (Preserve logical resource identity or implement a controlled migration and retention plan.). These two steps address: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records.

C:

Enable inventory collection and central reporting for in-scope managed nodes. This is suitable for another situation: Operations estimates patch compliance from EC2 tags but has no verified installed software inventory. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership.) and design change (Preserve logical resource identity or implement a controlled migration and retention plan.). These two steps address: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records.

E:

Review parameter paths, KMS encryption settings and consuming IAM roles. This is suitable for another situation: Multiple environments share unqualified /db/password parameter names and a production application accidentally reads a staging secret. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership.) and design change (Preserve logical resource identity or implement a controlled migration and retention plan.). These two steps address: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records.

Question 482

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. Promoted production artifact digest equals the one that passed staging tests.
  2. A rolling deployment preserves end-to-end checkout while old and new versions briefly coexist.
  3. A destructive replacement requires explicit approval and safe migration planning.
  4. A test event from a prohibited repository cannot change a production release pipeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Promoted production artifact digest equals the one that passed staging tests. The approved action is: Build a versioned immutable artifact once, then promote that artifact through approvals and environments. The risk principle is: Build-once promotion reduces environment drift and strengthens artifact provenance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A rolling deployment preserves end-to-end checkout while old and new versions briefly coexist. This instead addresses a different case: A customer checkout API and its consumer contract must change together, but independent pipelines deploy incompatible revisions without a compatibility gate. For the stated situation (Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches.), the better verification is: Promoted production artifact digest equals the one that passed staging tests. The deciding distinction is: Build-once promotion reduces environment drift and strengthens artifact provenance.

C:

A destructive replacement requires explicit approval and safe migration planning. This instead addresses a different case: A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor. For the stated situation (Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches.), the better verification is: Promoted production artifact digest equals the one that passed staging tests. The deciding distinction is: Build-once promotion reduces environment drift and strengthens artifact provenance.

D:

A test event from a prohibited repository cannot change a production release pipeline. This instead addresses a different case: A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines. For the stated situation (Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches.), the better verification is: Promoted production artifact digest equals the one that passed staging tests. The deciding distinction is: Build-once promotion reduces environment drift and strengthens artifact provenance.

Question 483

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not.
  2. A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available.
  3. A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure.
  4. A simulated analytics outage does not prevent billing and fulfillment processing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. The approved action is: Create selective event patterns matching only approved incident conditions. The risk principle is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available. This instead addresses a different case: An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports. For the stated situation (A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls.), the better verification is: A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. The deciding distinction is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

C:

A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure. This instead addresses a different case: A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero. For the stated situation (A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls.), the better verification is: A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. The deciding distinction is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

D:

A simulated analytics outage does not prevent billing and fulfillment processing. This instead addresses a different case: One order-created event needs to inform billing, fulfillment and analytics independently, but a direct Lambda chain loses downstream events when one service is unavailable. For the stated situation (A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls.), the better verification is: A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. The deciding distinction is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

Question 484

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A controlled memory stress test produces a visible custom metric and expected alarm.
  2. A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity.
  3. A sampled metric reaches the authorized analytics destination with expected delay.
  4. Test audit events resume delivery and are decryptable by approved security analysts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A controlled memory stress test produces a visible custom metric and expected alarm. The approved action is: Configure CloudWatch agent collection of memory metrics and a justified alarm threshold. The risk principle is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity. This instead addresses a different case: EKS pods restart after a rollout, and their transient filesystem logs disappear before investigators collect them. For the stated situation (An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics.), the better verification is: A controlled memory stress test produces a visible custom metric and expected alarm. The deciding distinction is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

C:

A sampled metric reaches the authorized analytics destination with expected delay. This instead addresses a different case: An enterprise needs near-real-time CloudWatch metric delivery to a central external analytics platform but polling every account exceeds API limits. For the stated situation (An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics.), the better verification is: A controlled memory stress test produces a visible custom metric and expected alarm. The deciding distinction is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

D:

Test audit events resume delivery and are decryptable by approved security analysts. This instead addresses a different case: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key. For the stated situation (An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics.), the better verification is: A controlled memory stress test produces a visible custom metric and expected alarm. The deciding distinction is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

Question 485

An engineering review identifies: An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service. Which shortcut is MOST unsafe for this exact condition?

  1. Re-run dependency resolution during production deploy and assume the binary stays identical.
  2. Test only that the new producer emits syntactically valid JSON.
  3. Filter only the billing folder and silently ignore changes to its common libraries.
  4. Deploy mutable latest tags and rely on handwritten release notes to identify code.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Deploy mutable latest tags and rely on handwritten release notes to identify code. The case is: An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service. A safer engineering response is: Record commit metadata and promote images by immutable digest through the release pipeline. The deciding principle is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Re-run dependency resolution during production deploy and assume the binary stays identical. This instead addresses a different case: Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches. For the stated situation (An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Deploy mutable latest tags and rely on handwritten release notes to identify code. The deciding distinction is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.

B:

Test only that the new producer emits syntactically valid JSON. This instead addresses a different case: An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events. For the stated situation (An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Deploy mutable latest tags and rely on handwritten release notes to identify code. The deciding distinction is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.

C:

Filter only the billing folder and silently ignore changes to its common libraries. This instead addresses a different case: A monorepo contains infrastructure, mobile and billing folders, but every README edit launches all three expensive production pipelines. For the stated situation (An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Deploy mutable latest tags and rely on handwritten release notes to identify code. The deciding distinction is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.

Question 486

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not.
  2. A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available.
  3. A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure.
  4. A malformed test message reaches the DLQ while healthy messages continue.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available. The approved action is: Trigger processing from verified object-available events with idempotent validation. The risk principle is: Workflows dependent on resource arrivals should use suitable events and readiness checks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. This instead addresses a different case: A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls. For the stated situation (An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports.), the better verification is: A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available. The deciding distinction is: Workflows dependent on resource arrivals should use suitable events and readiness checks.

C:

A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure. This instead addresses a different case: A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero. For the stated situation (An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports.), the better verification is: A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available. The deciding distinction is: Workflows dependent on resource arrivals should use suitable events and readiness checks.

D:

A malformed test message reaches the DLQ while healthy messages continue. This instead addresses a different case: A broken message repeatedly fails an event-driven worker and blocks useful progress while on-call has no way to inspect it. For the stated situation (An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports.), the better verification is: A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available. The deciding distinction is: Workflows dependent on resource arrivals should use suitable events and readiness checks.

Question 487

A DevOps team is reviewing: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Organize accounts by approved governance boundaries and attach tailored SCPs or guardrails.
  2. Correct the permission or invalid change and use the supported stack recovery or update workflow.
  3. Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership.
  4. Use AppConfig or an approved configuration store with versioned safe rollout and validation.
  5. Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Use AppConfig or an approved configuration store with versioned safe rollout and validation. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment. The complementary correct action is: Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius. Both follow the principle: Runtime configuration changes should be governed separately from immutable application binaries.

E:

Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment. The complementary correct action is: Use AppConfig or an approved configuration store with versioned safe rollout and validation. Both follow the principle: Runtime configuration changes should be governed separately from immutable application binaries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Organize accounts by approved governance boundaries and attach tailored SCPs or guardrails. This is suitable for another situation: Development accounts and regulated production accounts need distinct guardrails, but a single organization-wide policy blocks legitimate development experiments. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius.) and design change (Use AppConfig or an approved configuration store with versioned safe rollout and validation.). These two steps address: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment.

B:

Correct the permission or invalid change and use the supported stack recovery or update workflow. This is suitable for another situation: An automated CloudFormation update rolls back because a new IAM permission is denied, but the team plans to delete the entire production stack to recover. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius.) and design change (Use AppConfig or an approved configuration store with versioned safe rollout and validation.). These two steps address: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment.

C:

Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership. This is suitable for another situation: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius.) and design change (Use AppConfig or an approved configuration store with versioned safe rollout and validation.). These two steps address: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment.

Question 488

A DevOps team is reviewing: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Review alarm condition, transaction criticality, runbook approvals and current service health.
  2. Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds.
  3. Filter relevant state transitions and check desired state before mutating resources.
  4. Introduce versioned event contracts, compatibility checks and error routing.
  5. Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Filter relevant state transitions and check desired state before mutating resources. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. The complementary correct action is: Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts. Both follow the principle: Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns.

E:

Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. The complementary correct action is: Filter relevant state transitions and check desired state before mutating resources. Both follow the principle: Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review alarm condition, transaction criticality, runbook approvals and current service health. This is suitable for another situation: A production alarm starts an infrastructure rebuild immediately even during a payroll settlement window where failover can corrupt in-flight transactions. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts.) and design change (Filter relevant state transitions and check desired state before mutating resources.). These two steps address: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly.

B:

Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds. This is suitable for another situation: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts.) and design change (Filter relevant state transitions and check desired state before mutating resources.). These two steps address: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly.

D:

Introduce versioned event contracts, compatibility checks and error routing. This is suitable for another situation: A producer changes the event payload field name and consumers silently ignore new events while their SQS queues fill. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts.) and design change (Filter relevant state transitions and check desired state before mutating resources.). These two steps address: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly.

Question 489

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Correct narrowly scoped policy conditions for the approved organization trail.
  2. Automate drift detection, alerting and approved reconciliation for critical stacks.
  3. Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins.
  4. Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. Its validation is: A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence. The principle is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Correct narrowly scoped policy conditions for the approved organization trail. This instead addresses a different case: A central S3 audit bucket receives CloudTrail from most accounts but one member account fails because a KMS policy condition excludes its trail. For the stated situation (An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.), the better engineering action is: Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. The deciding distinction is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

B:

Automate drift detection, alerting and approved reconciliation for critical stacks. This instead addresses a different case: A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access. For the stated situation (An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.), the better engineering action is: Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. The deciding distinction is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

C:

Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins. This instead addresses a different case: A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails. For the stated situation (An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.), the better engineering action is: Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. The deciding distinction is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

Question 490

A DevOps team is reviewing: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect Inspector scanning coverage, asset inventory, findings and patch deployment.
  2. Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines.
  3. Implement a controlled short-lived privileged role assumption with audit and review.
  4. Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing.
  5. Correct narrowly scoped policy conditions for the approved organization trail.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect Inspector scanning coverage, asset inventory, findings and patch deployment. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually. The complementary correct action is: Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines. Both follow the principle: Vulnerability assessment should be continuous and integrated with immutable image updates.

B:

Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually. The complementary correct action is: Inspect Inspector scanning coverage, asset inventory, findings and patch deployment. Both follow the principle: Vulnerability assessment should be continuous and integrated with immutable image updates.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Implement a controlled short-lived privileged role assumption with audit and review. This is suitable for another situation: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect Inspector scanning coverage, asset inventory, findings and patch deployment.) and design change (Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines.). These two steps address: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually.

D:

Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing. This is suitable for another situation: A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect Inspector scanning coverage, asset inventory, findings and patch deployment.) and design change (Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines.). These two steps address: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually.

E:

Correct narrowly scoped policy conditions for the approved organization trail. This is suitable for another situation: A central S3 audit bucket receives CloudTrail from most accounts but one member account fails because a KMS policy condition excludes its trail. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect Inspector scanning coverage, asset inventory, findings and patch deployment.) and design change (Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines.). These two steps address: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests