Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 21
Question 200
A DevOps team is reviewing: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners.
- Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.
- Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.
- Configure an appropriate SQS DLQ with alerting and governed redrive procedure.
- Introduce versioned event contracts, compatibility checks and error routing.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. The complementary correct action is: Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows. Both follow the principle: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
C:Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. The complementary correct action is: Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage. Both follow the principle: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners. This is suitable for another situation: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.) and design change (Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.). These two steps address: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.
D:Configure an appropriate SQS DLQ with alerting and governed redrive procedure. This is suitable for another situation: A broken message repeatedly fails an event-driven worker and blocks useful progress while on-call has no way to inspect it. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.) and design change (Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.). These two steps address: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.
E:Introduce versioned event contracts, compatibility checks and error routing. This is suitable for another situation: A producer changes the event payload field name and consumers silently ignore new events while their SQS queues fill. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.) and design change (Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.). These two steps address: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.
Question 201
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A document service requires copies in a separate Region, but new objects stay only in the source S3 bucket. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Recovery must include downstream capacity limits, backoff and graceful degradation.
- Active-active replicated data needs explicit conflict resolution and application reconciliation semantics.
- Availability requires both managed database failover and application-side transient fault handling.
- Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions. Relevant first evidence: Review source/destination versioning, replication rule scope, IAM role and KMS key grants. The resulting controlled response is: Configure S3 replication with required permissions and encryption handling.
Incorrect Answers
A:Recovery must include downstream capacity limits, backoff and graceful degradation. This instead addresses a different case: During a regional outage, aggressive retry loops cause all recovered services to overload the backup database within minutes. For the stated situation (A document service requires copies in a separate Region, but new objects stay only in the source S3 bucket.), the better principle is: Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions.
B:Active-active replicated data needs explicit conflict resolution and application reconciliation semantics. This instead addresses a different case: A multi-Region shopping app writes the same item in two Regions and occasionally overwrites updates unexpectedly. For the stated situation (A document service requires copies in a separate Region, but new objects stay only in the source S3 bucket.), the better principle is: Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions.
C:Availability requires both managed database failover and application-side transient fault handling. This instead addresses a different case: A critical Aurora service stores data reliably but a client uses a short hardcoded connection timeout and does not retry after writer promotion. For the stated situation (A document service requires copies in a separate Region, but new objects stay only in the source S3 bucket.), the better principle is: Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region object resilience requires configured replication and suitable versioning and permissions.
Question 202
Before changing production, engineers find: Deployment artifacts containing sensitive configuration are stored in an S3 bucket with broad read access and no enforced encryption policy. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators.
- Review function package contents, layer versions, supported runtimes and release links.
- Review bucket policy, encryption settings, KMS grants and pipeline roles.
- Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Review bucket policy, encryption settings, KMS grants and pipeline roles. The governing principle is: Artifact storage needs controlled access, encryption and traceable retention. The next controlled engineering decision is: Enforce least-privilege S3 access and approved server-side encryption on release artifacts.
Incorrect Answers
A:Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. This instead addresses a different case: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. For the stated situation (Deployment artifacts containing sensitive configuration are stored in an S3 bucket with broad read access and no enforced encryption policy.), the better investigation is: Review bucket policy, encryption settings, KMS grants and pipeline roles. The deciding distinction is: Artifact storage needs controlled access, encryption and traceable retention.
B:Review function package contents, layer versions, supported runtimes and release links. This instead addresses a different case: An application repeatedly packages a huge unchanged runtime dependency into every Lambda release, increasing rollout time and inconsistent versions. For the stated situation (Deployment artifacts containing sensitive configuration are stored in an S3 bucket with broad read access and no enforced encryption policy.), the better investigation is: Review bucket policy, encryption settings, KMS grants and pipeline roles. The deciding distinction is: Artifact storage needs controlled access, encryption and traceable retention.
D:Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. For the stated situation (Deployment artifacts containing sensitive configuration are stored in an S3 bucket with broad read access and no enforced encryption policy.), the better investigation is: Review bucket policy, encryption settings, KMS grants and pipeline roles. The deciding distinction is: Artifact storage needs controlled access, encryption and traceable retention.
Question 203
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A deliberately changed role triggers a finding and is restored or risk accepted.
- A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain.
- A deliberately vulnerable test image is found and corrected through a tracked release.
- A controlled rejected connection is traceable to source and destination metadata.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A deliberately changed role triggers a finding and is restored or risk accepted. The approved action is: Automate drift detection, alerting and approved reconciliation for critical stacks. The risk principle is: Drift checks and authorization records can reveal out-of-band permission changes.
Incorrect Answers
B:A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain. This instead addresses a different case: Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination. For the stated situation (A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access.), the better verification is: A deliberately changed role triggers a finding and is restored or risk accepted. The deciding distinction is: Drift checks and authorization records can reveal out-of-band permission changes.
C:A deliberately vulnerable test image is found and corrected through a tracked release. This instead addresses a different case: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually. For the stated situation (A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access.), the better verification is: A deliberately changed role triggers a finding and is restored or risk accepted. The deciding distinction is: Drift checks and authorization records can reveal out-of-band permission changes.
D:A controlled rejected connection is traceable to source and destination metadata. This instead addresses a different case: Security detects unauthorized port scans but cannot determine which source attempted connections to a sensitive subnet. For the stated situation (A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access.), the better verification is: A deliberately changed role triggers a finding and is restored or risk accepted. The deciding distinction is: Drift checks and authorization records can reveal out-of-band permission changes.
Question 204
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A production delivery pipeline remains green after a deployment even though health checks fail during post-deploy traffic. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- The build succeeds without secret exposure in source, logs or artifact metadata.
- Peak deployment traffic stays within database connection limits with recoverable rollback.
- A test event from a prohibited repository cannot change a production release pipeline.
- A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision. The approved action is: Integrate deployment alarms and an automated rollback path for failed acceptance windows. The risk principle is: Release success should depend on monitored application health and recoverable deployment state.
Incorrect Answers
A:The build succeeds without secret exposure in source, logs or artifact metadata. This instead addresses a different case: A build job reads a database password directly from a committed buildspec environment variable. For the stated situation (A production delivery pipeline remains green after a deployment even though health checks fail during post-deploy traffic.), the better verification is: A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision. The deciding distinction is: Release success should depend on monitored application health and recoverable deployment state.
B:Peak deployment traffic stays within database connection limits with recoverable rollback. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment immediately starts hundreds of Lambda workers, exhausting relational database connections and making rollback harder. For the stated situation (A production delivery pipeline remains green after a deployment even though health checks fail during post-deploy traffic.), the better verification is: A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision. The deciding distinction is: Release success should depend on monitored application health and recoverable deployment state.
C:A test event from a prohibited repository cannot change a production release pipeline. This instead addresses a different case: A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines. For the stated situation (A production delivery pipeline remains green after a deployment even though health checks fail during post-deploy traffic.), the better verification is: A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision. The deciding distinction is: Release success should depend on monitored application health and recoverable deployment state.
Question 205
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: CodeBuild exits zero after a testing script prints failing assertions, and no test result report is retained. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions.
- Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence.
- End-to-end application acceptance should validate critical customer transactions and dependencies.
- Container provenance controls should verify publishers and immutable artifact digests.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence. Relevant first evidence: Inspect shell error handling, test process exit codes, buildspec commands and report-group output. The resulting controlled response is: Ensure tests exit nonzero on failures and publish test reports in the build workflow.
Incorrect Answers
A:Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions. This instead addresses a different case: An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events. For the stated situation (CodeBuild exits zero after a testing script prints failing assertions, and no test result report is retained.), the better principle is: Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence. The deciding distinction is: Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence.
C:End-to-end application acceptance should validate critical customer transactions and dependencies. This instead addresses a different case: After a deployment, the homepage returns HTTP 200 while checkout is broken for authenticated customers. For the stated situation (CodeBuild exits zero after a testing script prints failing assertions, and no test result report is retained.), the better principle is: Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence. The deciding distinction is: Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence.
D:Container provenance controls should verify publishers and immutable artifact digests. This instead addresses a different case: A registry contains internal and third-party images, and the deployment job cannot distinguish approved signed builds from untrusted tags. For the stated situation (CodeBuild exits zero after a testing script prints failing assertions, and no test result report is retained.), the better principle is: Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence. The deciding distinction is: Build success and test reporting must reflect real assertion failures with consumable evidence.
Question 206
Before changing production, engineers find: Developers manually create Lambda permissions and API Gateway integrations after deploying a packaged application, causing environment differences. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Inspect Ref and GetAtt relationships, DependsOn needs and function creation errors.
- Inspect stack events, failed resources, execution role permissions and rollback status.
- Inspect SAM template resources, generated roles and manually added triggers.
- Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect SAM template resources, generated roles and manually added triggers. The governing principle is: Serverless infrastructure and permissions should be represented as repeatable declarative resources. The next controlled engineering decision is: Model function, API integration and minimum IAM permissions in the versioned SAM template.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect Ref and GetAtt relationships, DependsOn needs and function creation errors. This instead addresses a different case: A stack update frequently fails because an IAM policy and a Lambda function using the policy are created in an unsafe order. For the stated situation (Developers manually create Lambda permissions and API Gateway integrations after deploying a packaged application, causing environment differences.), the better investigation is: Inspect SAM template resources, generated roles and manually added triggers. The deciding distinction is: Serverless infrastructure and permissions should be represented as repeatable declarative resources.
B:Inspect stack events, failed resources, execution role permissions and rollback status. This instead addresses a different case: An automated CloudFormation update rolls back because a new IAM permission is denied, but the team plans to delete the entire production stack to recover. For the stated situation (Developers manually create Lambda permissions and API Gateway integrations after deploying a packaged application, causing environment differences.), the better investigation is: Inspect SAM template resources, generated roles and manually added triggers. The deciding distinction is: Serverless infrastructure and permissions should be represented as repeatable declarative resources.
D:Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. This instead addresses a different case: A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets. For the stated situation (Developers manually create Lambda permissions and API Gateway integrations after deploying a packaged application, causing environment differences.), the better investigation is: Inspect SAM template resources, generated roles and manually added triggers. The deciding distinction is: Serverless infrastructure and permissions should be represented as repeatable declarative resources.
Question 207
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Predictable demand can be addressed with scheduled or predictive capacity planning.
- Queue monitoring must track oldest message age and dead-letter handling, not count alone.
- Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.
- Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness. Relevant first evidence: Inspect read/write capacity utilization, throttle metrics and scaling settings. The resulting controlled response is: Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates.
Incorrect Answers
A:Predictable demand can be addressed with scheduled or predictive capacity planning. This instead addresses a different case: A predictable daily traffic peak starts before the reactive Auto Scaling policy can launch sufficient EC2 instances. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better principle is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.
B:Queue monitoring must track oldest message age and dead-letter handling, not count alone. This instead addresses a different case: A queue's depth remains modest but its oldest message waits 40 minutes because one poison message repeatedly fails processing. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better principle is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.
D:Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher. This instead addresses a different case: An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better principle is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.
Question 208
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available.
- Repeated signed delivery produces one fulfillment operation, while invalid signatures fail.
- The stack returns to a stable state without losing approved persistent resources.
- An affected account event is visible to authorized operators with timely service context.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:An affected account event is visible to authorized operators with timely service context. The approved action is: Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows. The risk principle is: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
Incorrect Answers
A:A delayed file starts exactly one logical report after it is fully available. This instead addresses a different case: An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports. For the stated situation (An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.), the better verification is: An affected account event is visible to authorized operators with timely service context. The deciding distinction is: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
B:Repeated signed delivery produces one fulfillment operation, while invalid signatures fail. This instead addresses a different case: A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs. For the stated situation (An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.), the better verification is: An affected account event is visible to authorized operators with timely service context. The deciding distinction is: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
C:The stack returns to a stable state without losing approved persistent resources. This instead addresses a different case: A production stack enters UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED after a deleted external resource cannot be restored. For the stated situation (An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.), the better verification is: An affected account event is visible to authorized operators with timely service context. The deciding distinction is: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
Question 209
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An organization must retain regulatory audit evidence for seven years, but administrators can remove every copy using ordinary DeleteObject. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A test delete before retention expiry is denied and authorized readers retain access.
- An allowed action succeeds, while prohibited service deployment remains blocked.
- Permitted connection and return traffic succeed while prohibited access is denied.
- A test attempt to create public access fails or triggers controlled remediation.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A test delete before retention expiry is denied and authorized readers retain access. The approved action is: Apply approved S3 Object Lock retention where required with tested access governance. The risk principle is: Compliance retention requires appropriate immutability controls and separated privileges.
Incorrect Answers
B:An allowed action succeeds, while prohibited service deployment remains blocked. This instead addresses a different case: A developer's administrator IAM policy still fails to launch an unapproved service because an OU SCP contains an explicit deny. For the stated situation (An organization must retain regulatory audit evidence for seven years, but administrators can remove every copy using ordinary DeleteObject.), the better verification is: A test delete before retention expiry is denied and authorized readers retain access. The deciding distinction is: Compliance retention requires appropriate immutability controls and separated privileges.
C:Permitted connection and return traffic succeed while prohibited access is denied. This instead addresses a different case: A service needs stateful application access, but network engineers rely on one stateless NACL inbound allow rule and response traffic is blocked. For the stated situation (An organization must retain regulatory audit evidence for seven years, but administrators can remove every copy using ordinary DeleteObject.), the better verification is: A test delete before retention expiry is denied and authorized readers retain access. The deciding distinction is: Compliance retention requires appropriate immutability controls and separated privileges.
D:A test attempt to create public access fails or triggers controlled remediation. This instead addresses a different case: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. For the stated situation (An organization must retain regulatory audit evidence for seven years, but administrators can remove every copy using ordinary DeleteObject.), the better verification is: A test delete before retention expiry is denied and authorized readers retain access. The deciding distinction is: Compliance retention requires appropriate immutability controls and separated privileges.
Question 210
A DevOps team is reviewing: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Correct the failing hook or dependency and redeploy using the supported EC2 deployment sequence.
- Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions.
- Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions.
- Inspect Deployment maxUnavailable, probes, replica counts and pod disruption budgets.
- Define retention exemptions or tag policies that protect deployed and rollback candidate artifacts.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction. The complementary correct action is: Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions. Both follow the principle: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries.
C:Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction. The complementary correct action is: Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions. Both follow the principle: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:Correct the failing hook or dependency and redeploy using the supported EC2 deployment sequence. This is suitable for another situation: A CodeDeploy in-place EC2 release fails during ApplicationStart, but the team incorrectly treats the issue as an Auto Scaling failure. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions.) and design change (Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions.). These two steps address: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction.
D:Inspect Deployment maxUnavailable, probes, replica counts and pod disruption budgets. This is suitable for another situation: An EKS rolling deployment scales down all API pods at once, causing requests to fail despite multiple nodes. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions.) and design change (Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions.). These two steps address: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction.
E:Define retention exemptions or tag policies that protect deployed and rollback candidate artifacts. This is suitable for another situation: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions.) and design change (Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions.). These two steps address: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction.