Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 20
Question 190
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions.
- Artifact integrity should be verified against immutable signed or hashed release metadata.
- Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions.
- Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions. Relevant first evidence: Review staged connection settings, test secrets, IAM role access and failed connection traces. The resulting controlled response is: Add an isolated integration stage with representative database access and verifiable test assertions.
Incorrect Answers
A:Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions. This instead addresses a different case: A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment. For the stated situation (Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database.), the better principle is: Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions. The deciding distinction is: Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions.
B:Artifact integrity should be verified against immutable signed or hashed release metadata. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment retrieves ZIP bundles from a common S3 prefix where operators can replace a file without updating the approved release record. For the stated situation (Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database.), the better principle is: Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions. The deciding distinction is: Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions.
C:Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions. This instead addresses a different case: An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events. For the stated situation (Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database.), the better principle is: Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions. The deciding distinction is: Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions.
Question 191
The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A regional AWS Health event indicates maintenance of a service used by five accounts, but no on-call team receives it. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?
- Route relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to the approved operations channel.
- Query structured log events grouped by revision and error pattern using Logs Insights.
- Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate.
- Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Route relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to the approved operations channel. Its validation is: A test matching event reaches the correct responder with affected account context. The principle is: Operational events need managed cross-account routing and accountable notification paths.
Incorrect Answers
B:Query structured log events grouped by revision and error pattern using Logs Insights. This instead addresses a different case: A burst of HTTP 500s appears in logs, but operators query raw text and cannot correlate failures by deployment revision. For the stated situation (A regional AWS Health event indicates maintenance of a service used by five accounts, but no on-call team receives it.), the better engineering action is: Route relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to the approved operations channel. The deciding distinction is: Operational events need managed cross-account routing and accountable notification paths.
C:Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate. This instead addresses a different case: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. For the stated situation (A regional AWS Health event indicates maintenance of a service used by five accounts, but no on-call team receives it.), the better engineering action is: Route relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to the approved operations channel. The deciding distinction is: Operational events need managed cross-account routing and accountable notification paths.
D:Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates. This instead addresses a different case: A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm. For the stated situation (A regional AWS Health event indicates maintenance of a service used by five accounts, but no on-call team receives it.), the better engineering action is: Route relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to the approved operations channel. The deciding distinction is: Operational events need managed cross-account routing and accountable notification paths.
Question 192
A DevOps team is reviewing: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed.
- Implement a controlled short-lived privileged role assumption with audit and review.
- Inspect finding identifiers, aggregation rules, duplicate rates and missed escalations.
- Inspect detector enablement, Security Hub integration, EventBridge rules and delegated admin.
- Review organization trail destinations, log archive permissions and retention control.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. The complementary correct action is: Review organization trail destinations, log archive permissions and retention control. Both follow the principle: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.
E:Review organization trail destinations, log archive permissions and retention control. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. The complementary correct action is: Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. Both follow the principle: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.
Incorrect Answers
B:Implement a controlled short-lived privileged role assumption with audit and review. This is suitable for another situation: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review organization trail destinations, log archive permissions and retention control.) and design change (Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed.). These two steps address: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.
C:Inspect finding identifiers, aggregation rules, duplicate rates and missed escalations. This is suitable for another situation: A monitoring platform generates thousands of identical GuardDuty alerts while missing new critical incidents due to analyst overload. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review organization trail destinations, log archive permissions and retention control.) and design change (Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed.). These two steps address: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.
D:Inspect detector enablement, Security Hub integration, EventBridge rules and delegated admin. This is suitable for another situation: A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review organization trail destinations, log archive permissions and retention control.) and design change (Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed.). These two steps address: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.
Question 193
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Security assessment should be incorporated at a stage where an unsafe artifact can be blocked.
- Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions.
- Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions.
- Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions. Relevant first evidence: Review migration scripts, backward compatibility, write patterns and rollback requirements. The resulting controlled response is: Use expand-and-contract migration with staged validation of both old and new applications.
Incorrect Answers
A:Security assessment should be incorporated at a stage where an unsafe artifact can be blocked. This instead addresses a different case: A container image with a known critical OS vulnerability is built and deployed because only compilation and unit testing are gated. For the stated situation (A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment.), the better principle is: Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions. The deciding distinction is: Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions.
C:Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions. This instead addresses a different case: Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database. For the stated situation (A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment.), the better principle is: Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions. The deciding distinction is: Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions.
D:Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. For the stated situation (A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment.), the better principle is: Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions. The deciding distinction is: Schema migration tests must account for temporarily coexisting application versions.
Question 194
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A simulated rapid pair of commits cannot leave an older release running after the approved newer release.
- A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account.
- A rollback returns traffic to the exact pre-release immutable version.
- A test event from a prohibited repository cannot change a production release pipeline.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A simulated rapid pair of commits cannot leave an older release running after the approved newer release. The approved action is: Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment. The risk principle is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
Incorrect Answers
B:A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account. This instead addresses a different case: A delivery pipeline in a tooling account must deploy CloudFormation into isolated production accounts without storing long-term access keys. For the stated situation (Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.), the better verification is: A simulated rapid pair of commits cannot leave an older release running after the approved newer release. The deciding distinction is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
C:A rollback returns traffic to the exact pre-release immutable version. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records. For the stated situation (Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.), the better verification is: A simulated rapid pair of commits cannot leave an older release running after the approved newer release. The deciding distinction is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
D:A test event from a prohibited repository cannot change a production release pipeline. This instead addresses a different case: A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines. For the stated situation (Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.), the better verification is: A simulated rapid pair of commits cannot leave an older release running after the approved newer release. The deciding distinction is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
Question 195
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Event-based remediation should be scoped to the affected resource and run with least privilege.
- Container deployment failures may result from registry authentication and network access rather than code.
- Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
- Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior. Relevant first evidence: Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits. The resulting controlled response is: Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds.
Incorrect Answers
A:Event-based remediation should be scoped to the affected resource and run with least privilege. This instead addresses a different case: AWS Config finds an EC2 instance without the approved monitoring agent, but the repair Lambda has permission to modify every resource in the account. For the stated situation (A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy.), the better principle is: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior. The deciding distinction is: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
B:Container deployment failures may result from registry authentication and network access rather than code. This instead addresses a different case: New ECS tasks repeatedly remain PENDING with CannotPullContainerError even though the application binary is correct. For the stated situation (A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy.), the better principle is: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior. The deciding distinction is: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
D:Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns. This instead addresses a different case: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. For the stated situation (A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy.), the better principle is: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior. The deciding distinction is: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
Question 196
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A container image tag is overwritten weekly, so audit teams cannot reproduce the exact build used for an earlier release. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Reproducible builds require pinned dependencies and verifiable artifact identities.
- Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior.
- Artifact integrity should be verified against immutable signed or hashed release metadata.
- Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility. Relevant first evidence: Review ECR tag mutability, digests, image lifecycle policies and build attestations. The resulting controlled response is: Enable appropriate image tag immutability or deploy by digest with controlled image retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Reproducible builds require pinned dependencies and verifiable artifact identities. This instead addresses a different case: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day. For the stated situation (A container image tag is overwritten weekly, so audit teams cannot reproduce the exact build used for an earlier release.), the better principle is: Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility. The deciding distinction is: Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility.
B:Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior. This instead addresses a different case: An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path. For the stated situation (A container image tag is overwritten weekly, so audit teams cannot reproduce the exact build used for an earlier release.), the better principle is: Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility. The deciding distinction is: Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility.
C:Artifact integrity should be verified against immutable signed or hashed release metadata. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment retrieves ZIP bundles from a common S3 prefix where operators can replace a file without updating the approved release record. For the stated situation (A container image tag is overwritten weekly, so audit teams cannot reproduce the exact build used for an earlier release.), the better principle is: Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility. The deciding distinction is: Release artifacts need immutable identifiers and protected retention for reproducibility.
Question 197
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A production alarm starts an infrastructure rebuild immediately even during a payroll settlement window where failover can corrupt in-flight transactions. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Failure investigation should use CloudFormation stack events and supported recovery operations.
- Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
- Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns.
- Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints. Relevant first evidence: Review alarm condition, transaction criticality, runbook approvals and current service health. The resulting controlled response is: Use conditional automation and human approval for high-risk stateful remediation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Failure investigation should use CloudFormation stack events and supported recovery operations. This instead addresses a different case: A production stack enters UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED after a deleted external resource cannot be restored. For the stated situation (A production alarm starts an infrastructure rebuild immediately even during a payroll settlement window where failover can corrupt in-flight transactions.), the better principle is: Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints. The deciding distinction is: Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints.
B:Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior. This instead addresses a different case: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy. For the stated situation (A production alarm starts an infrastructure rebuild immediately even during a payroll settlement window where failover can corrupt in-flight transactions.), the better principle is: Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints. The deciding distinction is: Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints.
C:Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns. This instead addresses a different case: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. For the stated situation (A production alarm starts an infrastructure rebuild immediately even during a payroll settlement window where failover can corrupt in-flight transactions.), the better principle is: Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints. The deciding distinction is: Remediation decisions must respect approved change safety, business state and rollback constraints.
Question 198
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: EKS pods restart after a rollout, and their transient filesystem logs disappear before investigators collect them. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- Only vulnerable image digests are flagged and retested after remediation.
- A failing test release restores healthy tasks while recording the rollback reason.
- A deliberate application 500 is distinguishable from an ALB-origin 503 in monitoring.
- A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity. The approved action is: Forward container logs with cluster, namespace, pod and deployment identifiers. The risk principle is: Ephemeral workloads need centralized logs and stable metadata for post-failure analysis.
Incorrect Answers
A:Only vulnerable image digests are flagged and retested after remediation. This instead addresses a different case: Amazon Inspector reports a critical package CVE on a small set of container images, but the security board assumes all images are affected. For the stated situation (EKS pods restart after a rollout, and their transient filesystem logs disappear before investigators collect them.), the better verification is: A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity. The deciding distinction is: Ephemeral workloads need centralized logs and stable metadata for post-failure analysis.
B:A failing test release restores healthy tasks while recording the rollback reason. This instead addresses a different case: A new ECS task definition produces errors after traffic shift, but the deployment continues to completion because alarms are not associated with the release. For the stated situation (EKS pods restart after a rollout, and their transient filesystem logs disappear before investigators collect them.), the better verification is: A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity. The deciding distinction is: Ephemeral workloads need centralized logs and stable metadata for post-failure analysis.
C:A deliberate application 500 is distinguishable from an ALB-origin 503 in monitoring. This instead addresses a different case: An application dashboard reports increased HTTP 5xx errors after release, but it does not distinguish target errors from errors generated by the ALB. For the stated situation (EKS pods restart after a rollout, and their transient filesystem logs disappear before investigators collect them.), the better verification is: A terminated pod's error records remain searchable with its release identity. The deciding distinction is: Ephemeral workloads need centralized logs and stable metadata for post-failure analysis.
Question 199
Before changing production, engineers find: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Inspect consumer contract tests, deployment sequencing and service version dependencies.
- Review action region, artifact store configuration, KMS grants and destination execution permissions.
- Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence.
- Review migration scripts, backward compatibility, write patterns and rollback requirements.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence. The governing principle is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency. The next controlled engineering decision is: Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect consumer contract tests, deployment sequencing and service version dependencies. This instead addresses a different case: A customer checkout API and its consumer contract must change together, but independent pipelines deploy incompatible revisions without a compatibility gate. For the stated situation (Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.), the better investigation is: Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence. The deciding distinction is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
B:Review action region, artifact store configuration, KMS grants and destination execution permissions. This instead addresses a different case: A release pipeline runs in one Region but must deploy a serverless service to a second Region with artifacts available for that target. For the stated situation (Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.), the better investigation is: Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence. The deciding distinction is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
D:Review migration scripts, backward compatibility, write patterns and rollback requirements. This instead addresses a different case: A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment. For the stated situation (Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.), the better investigation is: Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence. The deciding distinction is: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
Question 200
A DevOps team is reviewing: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners.
- Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.
- Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.
- Configure an appropriate SQS DLQ with alerting and governed redrive procedure.
- Introduce versioned event contracts, compatibility checks and error routing.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. The complementary correct action is: Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows. Both follow the principle: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
C:Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. The complementary correct action is: Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage. Both follow the principle: Provider health notifications complement application and resource telemetry.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners. This is suitable for another situation: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.) and design change (Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.). These two steps address: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.
D:Configure an appropriate SQS DLQ with alerting and governed redrive procedure. This is suitable for another situation: A broken message repeatedly fails an event-driven worker and blocks useful progress while on-call has no way to inspect it. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.) and design change (Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.). These two steps address: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.
E:Introduce versioned event contracts, compatibility checks and error routing. This is suitable for another situation: A producer changes the event payload field name and consumers silently ignore new events while their SQS queues fill. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Health event scope, affected entities and incident routing coverage.) and design change (Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.). These two steps address: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms.