Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 6
Question 50
A university wants certain faculty cloud resources protected from unmanaged personal laptops. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
- On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
- Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access.
- Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
- Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
D:Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
Incorrect Answers
A:Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
B:On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
E:Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
Question 51
A signed-in analyst opens a reporting portal but gets an access-denied message when trying to change permissions. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
- Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
- Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This is the directly applicable response. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
Incorrect Answers
A:Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
C:Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
D:Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.
Question 52
A workstation shows behavior consistent with credential theft and needs endpoint threat visibility. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
- Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources.
- Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
E:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity. This is the directly applicable response. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
B:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
C:Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Question 53
A responder needs to identify affected hosts and users associated with a Sentinel security incident. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
- Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This is the directly applicable response. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.
B:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.
D:Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.
Question 54
A finance team must stop accidental sharing of payment card information through corporate email. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
- Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
- Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
B:Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
D:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 55
A privacy office wants to assess service commitments before approving a new cloud process. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
- Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This is the directly applicable response. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
Incorrect Answers
A:Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
B:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
C:Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
Question 56
A litigation team needs to preserve selected mailboxes and documents for a legal hold. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
- Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements.
- Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This is the directly applicable response. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
C:Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Records management. Its appropriate purpose is: Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
D:Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Question 57
A department transfer should trigger specified account and group handling rather than manual email tickets. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.
- Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.
- Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
- On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
- Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
B:Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This is the directly applicable response. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Incorrect Answers
C:Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
D:On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
E:Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Question 58
A phishing email leads to a risky sign-in and suspicious endpoint behavior that analysts currently investigate separately. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
- Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
- Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This is the directly applicable response. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
C:Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
D:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Question 59
An Azure server displays suspicious process behavior and the cloud team needs threat alerts for the workload. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
- Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
- Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.
Incorrect Answers
B:Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.
C:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.
D:Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.
Question 60
A procurement reviewer requests Microsoft's available independent audit documents for a cloud service. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Incorrect Answers
A:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
B:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
D:Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.