Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 3
Question 20
An office employee moves between networks and the organization wants each sensitive session evaluated rather than trusted by location. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
- Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
- Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.
Incorrect Answers
B:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.
C:Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.
D:Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.
Question 21
A laptop fleet wants workers to sign in with biometrics or PIN without sending those gestures to a remote server. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
- Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation.
- Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
- Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
B:Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
C:Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Question 22
A retail booking site on Azure public IPs suffers large floods of unwanted inbound network packets. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
- Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
- Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
E:Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This is the directly applicable response. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
B:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
C:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
Question 23
A company wants finance servers isolated from a public test environment inside Azure. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
- Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables.
- Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
- Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.
C:Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.
D:Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.
Question 24
A workstation shows behavior consistent with credential theft and needs endpoint threat visibility. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources.
- An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
- Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
- Affected endpoints generate actionable detections and responders can investigate the activity chain.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Affected endpoints generate actionable detections and responders can investigate the activity chain. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Misconfigurations are tracked to remediation and future posture scans reflect the corrected resources. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
B:An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
C:Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Question 25
An on-premises Active Directory estate wants to extend Entra password protection with the supported agent design. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
- Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.
- Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported.
- Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported. This is the directly applicable response. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.
B:Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.
D:Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.
Question 26
A security team wants to search telemetry from several Microsoft services and network controls in one platform. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
- Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
- Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This is the directly applicable response. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
C:Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
D:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
E:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
Question 27
A database VM should accept TCP traffic from an app subnet but reject general Internet connections. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
- Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
- Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
- Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
- Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
C:Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This is the directly applicable response. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
D:Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
E:Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
Question 28
An internal auditor asks where to find available Microsoft's service compliance documentation. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
- Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
- Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements.
- Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This is the directly applicable response. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
C:Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Records management. Its appropriate purpose is: Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Question 29
A records officer wants to review supported user actions associated with information-protection policies. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
- Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
- Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
B:Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
C:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Question 30
A company needs to retain Teams and Exchange content for a defined period under a broad policy. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration.
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Incorrect Answers
A:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
B:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
D:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.