cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Microsoft AZ-104 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
AZ-104 Exam - Verified By Experts
AZ-104 Premium Bundle
$29.98

AZ-104 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 606 Questions & Answers. Last update: Oct 30, 2026
  • Training Course 132 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 458 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 453 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Microsoft AZ-104 Exam Training Products Individually
Microsoft AZ-104 Premium File
Premium File 606 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Microsoft AZ-104 Video Training Course
Training Course 132 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft AZ-104 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 458 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft AZ-104 Practice Test 62

Question 610

A resource group role is inherited by a managed disk created later. What behavior of Azure's hierarchy accounts for this?

  1. Assume a Reader grant on an unrelated sibling resource group automatically applies to the new managed disk.
  2. Set the custom role's assignableScopes to the allowed subscription or ancestor scope.
  3. Apply the role at an ancestor scope so its allowed actions flow to descendants.
  4. Remove unnecessary delete Actions from the custom role definition and reassess effective assignments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A role assignment at a resource group covers existing and newly created child resources where the role applies. Inheritance does not require per-resource duplication. This matters here because a resource group role is inherited by a managed disk created later. What behavior of Azure's hierarchy accounts for this.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A grant on one resource group does not flow sideways to a sibling group. The disk inherits permissions only from its own ancestor scopes or grants applied directly.

B:

Assignable scopes constrain where a custom role definition can be assigned. They are distinct from the actual scope of each individual assignment. This matters here because a resource group role is inherited by a managed disk created later. What behavior of Azure's hierarchy accounts for this.

D:

Least privilege requires granting only the provider operations the workload needs. Removing delete from one role still requires checking other positive grants. This matters here because a resource group role is inherited by a managed disk created later. What behavior of Azure's hierarchy accounts for this.

Question 611

A role assignment was removed at the resource group but remains on one disk from a direct assignment. What should be checked?

  1. Inspect role assignments at the management group and applicable parent hierarchy.
  2. Compare the exact principalId and principalType against the intended service principal.
  3. Inspect disk-level direct assignments independently of the removed group grant.
  4. Review inherited and group-based Contributor assignments at ancestor scopes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Removing an ancestor grant does not delete distinct assignments on child resources. Direct resource roles can continue to authorize operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A subscription's location in the management group tree determines its ancestor role assignments. A move can change effective inherited permissions. This matters here because a role assignment was removed at the resource group but remains on one disk from a direct assignment.

B:

Application display names can collide. Azure RBAC evaluates assignment to object IDs and principal types, not human-readable labels. This matters here because a role assignment was removed at the resource group but remains on one disk from a direct assignment.

D:

Removing one role assignment does not remove independent group or ancestor permissions. Effective access must be evaluated across all applicable grants. This matters here because a role assignment was removed at the resource group but remains on one disk from a direct assignment.

Question 612

A security team wants a role that can only inspect Azure Policy compliance without changing assignments. Which access principle fits?

  1. Grant Contributor for policy reporting because read-only Policy Insights access is assumed to require write privileges.
  2. Grant subscription-level RBAC Administrator merely to read Azure Policy compliance results.
  3. Use Check access for the actual user or service principal and review inherited paths.
  4. Use a least-privileged governance inspection role scoped to the evaluated resources.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Policy compliance review needs read permissions, not blanket Owner or Contributor. Role choice and scope should reflect the reporting requirement. This matters here because a security team wants a role that can only inspect Azure Policy compliance without changing assignments. Which….

Incorrect Answers

A:

Azure policy compliance inspection does not require general resource modification. Assign a suitable read-only role at the narrowest scope and verify access to policy insights.

B:

The role can manage authorization assignments, exceeding the required read-only compliance inspection. Use a suitable Reader/Policy Insights read permission at the necessary scope.

C:

IAM effective access considers assignments through security groups and ancestor scopes, not only assignments displayed for a single principal. This matters here because a security team wants a role that can only inspect Azure Policy compliance without changing assignments. Which….

Question 613

A compliance operator can read policy definitions but receives Forbidden when attempting to remediate resources. Why?

  1. Assign Storage Blob Data Reader at the target container scope.
  2. Combine applicable direct, group-derived, and inherited Azure RBAC grants.
  3. Check whether the operator holds policy remediation and resource-write permissions rather than only reader actions.
  4. Put the appropriate read-only ARM operation in Actions and omit write Actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Reading compliance and modifying resources are separate operations. A read-only role does not imply authority to run write-based remediations. This matters here because a compliance operator can read policy definitions but receives Forbidden when attempting to remediate resources. Why.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Blob contents require storage data-plane DataActions. Management-plane Reader of the storage account does not itself grant ordinary blob contents access. This matters here because a compliance operator can read policy definitions but receives Forbidden when attempting to remediate resources. Why.

B:

Azure RBAC generally adds the allowed actions from applicable assignments, subject to deny assignments and other controls. Reviewing only the direct role undercounts access. This matters here because a compliance operator can read policy definitions but receives Forbidden when attempting to remediate resources. Why.

D:

Custom roles explicitly enumerate management-plane permissions. Actions determine permitted resource operations, while DataActions describe supported service data operations. This matters here because a compliance operator can read policy definitions but receives Forbidden when attempting to remediate resources. Why.

Question 614

An Azure service needs to assign a role to an Entra user; the administrator knows only the email alias. What identity lookup should occur first?

  1. Filter Activity Log by authorization provider operation, target scope, and event time.
  2. Specify the service principal's immutable Entra object ID as the assignee.
  3. Resolve the user's Entra principal object ID and tenant before creating the RBAC assignment.
  4. Do not treat resource Contributor as an RBAC delegation role; grant narrowly scoped assignment authority if justified.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Email aliases and display names may change or collide. The resolved principal ID is the stable assignment target. This matters here because an Azure service needs to assign a role to an Entra user; the administrator knows only the email alias. What….

Incorrect Answers

A:

Historical control-plane records identify operations and actors. Inspecting only the current IAM list will not show past change events. This matters here because an Azure service needs to assign a role to an Entra user; the administrator knows only the email alias. What….

B:

Principal object IDs uniquely address the directory entity. Matching a friendly display name can select the wrong workload identity. This matters here because an Azure service needs to assign a role to an Entra user; the administrator knows only the email alias. What….

D:

Resource deployment writes do not include authorization writes. Promoting to Owner broadly would exceed the narrow access need when a dedicated role is sufficient. This matters here because an Azure service needs to assign a role to an Entra user; the administrator knows only the email alias. What….

Question 615

A resource access review finds a role assignment principal labeled Unknown after identity deletion. What should be investigated?

  1. Compare the assignment principal ID against directory deleted objects and surviving service principals.
  2. Compare the exact principalId and principalType against the intended service principal.
  3. Use Check access for the actual user or service principal and review inherited paths.
  4. Specify the service principal's immutable Entra object ID as the assignee.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

RBAC references can outlive removal of the directory object. Reusing the deleted user's friendly name is not reliable evidence of its identity. This matters here because a resource access review finds a role assignment principal labeled Unknown after identity deletion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Application display names can collide. Azure RBAC evaluates assignment to object IDs and principal types, not human-readable labels. This matters here because a resource access review finds a role assignment principal labeled Unknown after identity deletion.

C:

IAM effective access considers assignments through security groups and ancestor scopes, not only assignments displayed for a single principal. This matters here because a resource access review finds a role assignment principal labeled Unknown after identity deletion.

D:

Principal object IDs uniquely address the directory entity. Matching a friendly display name can select the wrong workload identity. This matters here because a resource access review finds a role assignment principal labeled Unknown after identity deletion.

Question 616

An organization needs to allow an emergency region waiver but keep all other deployments governed. What exception lifecycle is prudent?

  1. Scope and time-limit an approved Azure Policy exemption for only the exceptional resource.
  2. Grant a permanent tenant-wide policy waiver to resolve one temporary regional emergency request.
  3. Inspect policy evaluation details and the allowedLocations parameter in the effective assignment.
  4. Disable the organization-wide allowed-regions policy indefinitely for the emergency deployment, including unrelated subscriptions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Governance deviations should be precise, justified and auditable. Removing the parent policy assignment for a single emergency would weaken all children. This matters here because an organization needs to allow an emergency region waiver but keep all other deployments governed. What exception….

Incorrect Answers

B:

An emergency waiver should be approved, narrowly scoped and time-bound. A permanent tenant-wide exemption would weaken unrelated governance.

C:

A deny decision depends on evaluated resource properties and assignment parameters. Changing unrelated tags will not fix a location outside the allowlist. This matters here because an organization needs to allow an emergency region waiver but keep all other deployments governed. What exception….

D:

Removing organization-wide enforcement would admit deployments beyond the documented emergency. Retain the policy and authorize a scoped, justified and expiring exemption for the affected workload.

Question 617

An auditor notices a team removed a whole initiative to allow one exception. What corrective action is needed?

  1. Delete the entire initiative assignment permanently whenever one application receives an approved exception.
  2. Restore the initiative assignment and create a narrow supported exemption for the approved deviation.
  3. Check the resource provider's move support, dependencies, locks and target scope.
  4. Create a narrowly scoped, justified Azure Policy exemption with expiration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unassigning a shared initiative reduces protection across many resources. A scoped exemption preserves the default governance standard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An initiative-wide deletion removes controls from other resources. Restore the original assignment and use a scoped policy exemption.

C:

Some Azure resources or configurations cannot be moved between groups without prerequisites. Validation reduces broken dependencies. This matters here because an auditor notices a team removed a whole initiative to allow one exception. What corrective action is needed.

D:

An exemption can document approved exceptions without globally removing the governing policy assignment. Scope and expiry control exposure. This matters here because an auditor notices a team removed a whole initiative to allow one exception. What corrective action is needed.

Question 618

A team wants a region policy in report-only mode before activating hard enforcement. Which initial effect is useful?

  1. Start with Azure Policy audit effect and inspect compliance impact before enabling deny.
  2. Begin with a deny effect in production and postpone reviewing noncompliant resource impact until after blocked deployments occur.
  3. Immediately assign a deny effect that blocks production deployments before assessing which resources would be noncompliant.
  4. Change the policy effect to Disabled so no compliance evaluation or regional-location findings are recorded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Audit can reveal existing violations without blocking new work. The organization can fix affected resources before switching to enforcement. This matters here because a team wants a region policy in report-only mode before activating hard enforcement. Which initial effect is useful.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Deny is enforcement, not report-only observation. Start with Audit to collect compliance data without rejecting create or update requests, then assess the consequences before applying Deny.

C:

The scenario requires report-only assessment before hard enforcement. A deny effect would block affected deployment requests instead of first reporting their compliance impact.

D:

Disabled turns off evaluation and cannot report the resources that would violate the proposed region rule. Audit is the supported nonblocking compliance assessment effect.

Question 619

After a pilot, compliance reports unexpectedly lack evaluated resource types. What should be checked?

  1. Review the policy mode, rule conditions, scope and resource-provider applicability.
  2. Extend existing policy exemptions and assume all previously unevaluated resource types will appear in compliance reports.
  3. Inspect the relevant Policy exemption and its category, scope and expiry.
  4. Place the test workload in an appropriately governed Azure subscription.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Policy evaluation covers resources selected by mode and conditions. A compliant report without relevant evaluated types cannot validate the intended enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Exemption expiry does not determine policy evaluation coverage. Inspect the definition mode, filters, assignment scope and resource types.

C:

Exempt resources may be excluded from ordinary compliance processing under an approved exception. An exemption is not proof the resource's underlying configuration satisfies the rule. This matters here because after a pilot, compliance reports unexpectedly lack evaluated resource types.

D:

Subscriptions provide distinct billing, quota and administrative boundaries. Resource groups alone do not produce separate subscription-level billing scopes. This matters here because after a pilot, compliance reports unexpectedly lack evaluated resource types.

Question 620

An admin wants to prevent deletion of one database but keep neighboring resources in the group editable and deletable. Where should the lock reside?

  1. Use a management group and grant Reader at the approved ancestor scope.
  2. Apply the delete lock at the containing resource group so that every neighboring database is blocked too.
  3. Attach the CanNotDelete lock at the database resource scope.
  4. Check subscription-level compute vCPU quotas for the applicable region and VM family.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A resource-specific lock protects only the selected asset rather than every descendant in the resource group. Parent locks could have a wider blast radius. This matters here because an admin wants to prevent deletion of one database but keep neighboring resources in the group editable and deletable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Management groups organize subscriptions and permit inherited governance policies and role grants. They do not contain VMs directly. This matters here because an admin wants to prevent deletion of one database but keep neighboring resources in the group editable and deletable.

B:

Lock inheritance makes a resource-group lock broader than the requested single-database protection. Apply CanNotDelete at the specific database resource scope after checking any existing parent locks.

D:

Quota is evaluated per subscription and relevant region/family. A storage account capacity metric cannot establish available VM family quota. This matters here because an admin wants to prevent deletion of one database but keep neighboring resources in the group editable and deletable.

Microsoft Azure Administrator (AZ-104) Practice Tests