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Isaca CISM Practice Test 19

Question 180

A software vendor's incident response plan has a generic contact list but unclear decision authority during a breach. The on-call team disagrees whether a suspicious privileged-access alert warrants activating the formal incident response structure. A security manager has a defined assignment: specify when to activate the response plan. Which action BEST fulfills that specific assignment?

  1. Define classification triggers and callout thresholds
  2. Assign incident commander, legal, operations and business decision roles
  3. Schedule a routine annual review of incident contacts without specifying when suspected compromise activates formal response
  4. Run an exercise with out-of-hours contact and approval paths

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Consistent criteria prevent activation delays. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Clear authority reduces confusion. That action primarily serves the different objective to define incident command responsibilities. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to specify when to activate the response plan.

C:

Periodic maintenance cannot replace defined incident classification and activation criteria. Without thresholds, responders will continue to disagree about when to mobilize.

D:

Contacts may fail under realistic conditions. That action primarily serves the different objective to test communication during simulated escalation. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to specify when to activate the response plan.

Question 181

A payments processor detects a breach that may involve customer data in several jurisdictions. Investigators have not verified data exfiltration, but the proposed public statement describes it as confirmed. The accountable executive now asks the team to avoid premature public statements. What should the security manager recommend?

  1. Publish the draft external breach statement based on unconfirmed exfiltration claims and promise to correct it later
  2. Use an approved communications process that separates confirmed facts from hypotheses
  3. Involve legal and privacy leads in classifying impacted data, locations and time triggers
  4. Record discovery times, legal interpretations and approvals

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inaccurate messages can create harm. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Issuing early speculative statements creates unnecessary legal and trust risk. The immediate objective is to separate verified incident facts from hypotheses through the approved communication process.

C:

Notice requirements differ across duties. That action primarily serves the different objective to identify applicable notification obligations early. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to avoid premature public statements.

D:

Timelines may be reviewed later. That action primarily serves the different objective to preserve evidence of notification decisions. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to avoid premature public statements.

Question 182

An insurance investigation needs evidence from a compromised laptop that may later be used in litigation. After reviewing the situation, the management objective is to document custody of the laptop and images. Which response MOST directly addresses it?

  1. Restrict evidence access to authorized investigators and log handling
  2. Separate verified findings, methods, uncertainties and supporting evidence
  3. Acquire forensic images using documented methods and integrity hashes
  4. Record every transfer, holder, time and purpose in a chain-of-custody log

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Custody history supports authenticity. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Integrity and confidentiality both matter. That action primarily serves the different objective to limit access to sensitive investigative data. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to document custody of the laptop and images.

B:

Conclusions must be traceable. That action primarily serves the different objective to prepare a defensible investigative report. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to document custody of the laptop and images.

C:

Repeatable preservation supports admissibility. That action primarily serves the different objective to preserve the original evidence properly. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to document custody of the laptop and images.

Question 183

A hospital detects ransomware movement across workstations but isolating some devices could delay patient care. For the next governance decision, the team must decide when emergency shutdown is warranted. Which choice BEST provides that outcome?

  1. Apply approved patient-safety and security impact thresholds through incident command
  2. Coordinate with clinical leaders to isolate noncritical paths first and protect essential treatment
  3. Reintroduce validated systems in order of clinical dependency
  4. Review network and endpoint telemetry for continuing movement

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

High-impact actions need authorized decisions. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Containment must weigh immediate safety. That action primarily serves the different objective to select safe containment priorities. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to decide when emergency shutdown is warranted.

C:

Recovery should not reintroduce infection. That action primarily serves the different objective to plan staged restoration. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to decide when emergency shutdown is warranted.

D:

A command issued is not evidence of containment. That action primarily serves the different objective to verify isolation effectiveness. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to decide when emergency shutdown is warranted.

Question 184

A retailer observes unusual outbound data volume from a customer analytics service. The security program has been tasked specifically to protect evidence before response changes. Which approach should be selected?

  1. Correlate data egress records, account activity and authorized business exports
  2. Preserve relevant logs, data flow records and cloud control-plane events
  3. Monitor verified egress patterns and unauthorized destination changes
  4. Determine confirmed data categories, recipients and governing duties with legal counsel

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Evidence may be short-lived. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Volume anomalies require context. That action primarily serves the different objective to determine whether exfiltration occurred. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to protect evidence before response changes.

C:

Ongoing assurance is needed. That action primarily serves the different objective to detect repeated leakage after remediation. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to protect evidence before response changes.

D:

Obligations depend on affected information. That action primarily serves the different objective to assess customer notification needs. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to protect evidence before response changes.

Question 185

A media company learns that its website provider suffered a breach affecting shared administration credentials. A security manager has a defined assignment: contain exposed shared credentials. Which action BEST fulfills that specific assignment?

  1. Require provider indicators and compare with local account and service logs
  2. Rotate affected secrets and restrict provider access under the incident plan
  3. Reassess provider permissions, assurance gaps and alternate service options
  4. Use asset and data impact to decide targeted containment

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Account exposure can propagate. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Vendor breach does not prove identical customer compromise. That action primarily serves the different objective to confirm the company's actual scope of exposure. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain exposed shared credentials.

C:

Lessons should change third-party risk treatment. That action primarily serves the different objective to review supplier controls after the event. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain exposed shared credentials.

D:

Unnecessary shutdown can worsen service disruption. That action primarily serves the different objective to assess whether business services require isolation. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain exposed shared credentials.

Question 186

A firm suspects an employee deliberately copied sensitive product plans before resignation. Legal and HR have authorized narrowly scoped collection, but the relevant device and access records have not yet been secured against alteration or routine overwriting. The accountable executive now asks the team to preserve relevant records without altering them. What should the security manager recommend?

  1. Review offboarding, data access and monitoring controls after findings
  2. Coordinate with legal, HR and security under established investigative authority
  3. Correlate verified transfers, entitlements and data classifications
  4. Secure access logs, device evidence and approved data access records

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Evidence handling must support later review. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Root cause may be systemic. That action primarily serves the different objective to address control weaknesses revealed by the case. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to preserve relevant records without altering them.

B:

Insider investigations require privacy safeguards. That action primarily serves the different objective to ensure investigation is authorized and proportionate. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to preserve relevant records without altering them.

C:

Suspicion alone does not establish loss. That action primarily serves the different objective to determine actual scope of information exposure. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to preserve relevant records without altering them.

Question 187

A cloud service owner's API keys appear in a public software repository. Investigators have confirmed the published API key is still active, and an approved emergency revocation process is available. After reviewing the situation, the management objective is to prevent further use of compromised keys. Which response MOST directly addresses it?

  1. Introduce secret scanning and safer credential injection into development workflows
  2. Rotate or revoke exposed secrets and invalidate affected sessions where supported
  3. Analyze data-plane evidence and affected account permissions
  4. Continue evidence review for several days before revoking API keys already verified as active in a public repository

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Revocation limits exploitation. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Prevention should address the cause. That action primarily serves the different objective to prevent similar disclosures. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to prevent further use of compromised keys.

C:

Key exposure alone is not proof of data access. That action primarily serves the different objective to determine whether customer data was accessed. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to prevent further use of compromised keys.

D:

Preserving evidence is important but leaving confirmed exposed credentials usable invites further misuse. Authorized key rotation or revocation and session invalidation should occur promptly.

Question 188

An organization discovers a malicious update was distributed through a trusted software supplier. For the next governance decision, the team must contain the compromised update pathway. Which choice BEST provides that outcome?

  1. Review supplier assurance, contracts and correlated exposures
  2. Validate known-good packages and strengthened supplier verification gates
  3. Map installed versions, deployment history and critical workloads
  4. Pause affected deployments and restrict known malicious components with change approval

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Containment limits spread. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A trusted channel can fail again. That action primarily serves the different objective to reassess supply-chain risk after containment. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain the compromised update pathway.

B:

Recovery should address the delivery trust boundary. That action primarily serves the different objective to restore trust in the update process. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain the compromised update pathway.

C:

Supply-chain impact follows actual deployment. That action primarily serves the different objective to identify potentially affected systems. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain the compromised update pathway.

Question 189

An online bank experiences a distributed denial-of-service attack during its busiest payment period. The security program has been tasked specifically to activate a proportionate availability response. Which approach should be selected?

  1. Engage approved traffic mitigation and provider capacity procedures
  2. Update provider contracts, runbooks and peak-load exercises from observed conditions
  3. Use network telemetry, user behavior and service impact to classify the event
  4. Track legitimate transaction completion and service latency during containment

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

DDoS response should preserve legitimate access. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Resilience improves through testing. That action primarily serves the different objective to improve readiness for repeat attacks. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to activate a proportionate availability response.

C:

Volume alone does not prove attack. That action primarily serves the different objective to establish whether traffic is malicious or a demand spike. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to activate a proportionate availability response.

D:

Dropped traffic counts do not measure business success. That action primarily serves the different objective to measure attack impact and mitigation outcome. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to activate a proportionate availability response.

Question 190

A hospital detects unauthorized changes to medication inventory records but systems remain online. A security manager has a defined assignment: contain continued unauthorized modification. Which action BEST fulfills that specific assignment?

  1. Reconcile approved source data and verify corrections with clinical owners
  2. Reconcile affected transactions with trusted audit and source records
  3. Address the exploited authorization path and monitor sensitive record changes
  4. Restrict suspect identities and privileged change paths under incident authority

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Targeted containment protects records. This is the specified management outcome in the scenario; it gives the accountable team an action matched to the stated requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rollback without validation may propagate errors. That action primarily serves the different objective to restore trusted data carefully. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain continued unauthorized modification.

B:

Integrity failure can persist without downtime. That action primarily serves the different objective to confirm which records may be untrustworthy. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain continued unauthorized modification.

C:

Root-cause treatment closes the weakness. That action primarily serves the different objective to prevent recurrence. It is not the step that directly satisfies the stated need to contain continued unauthorized modification.

Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) Practice Tests