ISC CCSP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
Which feature of cloud computing is most restricted due to dependency on a single vendor?
A. Elastic scalability
B. Service reversibility
C. Cross-platform interoperability
D. Workload portability
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
Workload portability refers to the ability to move workloads or applications between different cloud providers or from an on-premises environment to a cloud service. The dependency on a single vendor can significantly restrict this capability because it limits the ability to move data, applications, or workloads across different platforms. When you rely on a single vendor's proprietary tools and technologies, you're often locked into that specific provider's environment, making it difficult to migrate to other vendors' services without significant effort or cost. This phenomenon is commonly known as vendor lock-in.
A. Elastic scalability - Elastic scalability is one of the core features of cloud computing, allowing systems to scale up or down according to demand. While vendor lock-in may affect the way scalability is implemented, it is not as directly impacted by vendor dependence compared to workload portability. Scalability can often be leveraged across different cloud providers with appropriate configurations.
B. Service reversibility - Service reversibility refers to the ability to switch between cloud services or back to an on-premises environment. Although vendor lock-in can make it difficult to reverse services, service reversibility is a broader concept and is less directly restricted by vendor dependence than workload portability, which involves moving workloads between cloud environments.
C. Cross-platform interoperability - Cross-platform interoperability involves ensuring that cloud services can communicate with each other across different platforms. While vendor lock-in can make it difficult to achieve seamless interoperability, the concept of interoperability typically involves using standards and protocols (like APIs) that enable communication between various platforms. It is impacted by vendor-specific tools but not as much as workload portability.
D. Workload portability - This is the feature most restricted by vendor lock-in. When an organization relies on proprietary services from a specific cloud provider, it becomes difficult to move workloads to other providers due to the lack of compatibility or support for the same services, tools, or frameworks. Vendor-specific technologies often limit the ease of transferring workloads between cloud platforms.
Question 2
Which API standards are predominantly utilized in cloud ecosystems to facilitate integration and communication?
A. REST and SAML
B. SOAP and REST
C. REST and XML
D. XML and SAML
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
In the cloud ecosystem, the predominant API standards for integration and communication are REST (Representational State Transfer) and SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol).
A. REST and SAML - SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is primarily used for authentication and single sign-on (SSO), not for API integration. While REST APIs are widely used in cloud services, SAML is not commonly associated with API communication and integration.
B. SOAP and REST - This is the correct answer. SOAP is a protocol for exchanging structured information in the implementation of web services. It is widely used for enterprise-level applications that require high security and transactional reliability. REST, on the other hand, is an architectural style for building APIs and is more lightweight than SOAP. RESTful APIs are widely adopted in modern cloud ecosystems due to their simplicity and ease of use. Together, SOAP and REST are the two main standards for cloud-based communication.
C. REST and XML - While XML (eXtensible Markup Language) is a data format often used in both SOAP and REST APIs, it is not an API standard in itself. REST APIs often use JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) as the preferred data format, making XML a less common choice for cloud communication.
D. XML and SAML - XML and SAML are not typically used together for cloud communication. While XML can be used for data formatting, SAML is focused on security and authentication, not API integration or communication. Therefore, this option does not represent the primary standards used in cloud API integration.
B. SOAP and REST are the most widely used standards for cloud integration, with REST being more common due to its simplicity, scalability, and compatibility with modern web services.
Question 3
Which international standard specifically addresses practices and guidelines for handling electronic evidence in legal settings?
A. ISO/IEC 31000
B. ISO/IEC 27050
C. ISO/IEC 19888
D. ISO/IEC 27001
Answer: B
Explanation:
The handling of electronic evidence in legal settings is crucial for ensuring that the integrity of data is maintained during investigations and legal proceedings. The ISO/IEC 27050 standard specifically addresses this topic. It provides guidelines for managing and handling electronic evidence, particularly in the context of e-discovery, forensic investigations, and the preservation of evidence for legal purposes.
Option B, ISO/IEC 27050, is the correct answer. This standard focuses on electronic discovery (e-discovery), electronic records management, and handling digital evidence in ways that ensure its integrity and admissibility in legal contexts. It is part of the broader set of ISO/IEC 27000 standards that address information security management but specifically targets practices for dealing with digital evidence.
Option A, ISO/IEC 31000, is incorrect. This standard is focused on risk management processes and does not deal specifically with electronic evidence or legal settings.
Option C, ISO/IEC 19888, is incorrect. There is no known ISO/IEC 19888 standard. It is likely a misreference or a non-existent standard in the context of electronic evidence handling.
Option D, ISO/IEC 27001, is incorrect. While ISO/IEC 27001 deals with information security management systems (ISMS), it is more focused on ensuring the protection of information assets in general rather than specifically addressing the handling of electronic evidence in legal contexts.
Thus, the correct standard for practices and guidelines for handling electronic evidence in legal settings is B, ISO/IEC 27050.
Question 4
In the cloud service domain, which role is responsible for acquiring clients and negotiating service contracts?
A. Inter-cloud provider
B. Cloud service broker
C. Cloud auditor
D. Cloud service developer
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the cloud service domain, a variety of roles exist to manage different aspects of service delivery and interaction with clients. The role most directly involved in acquiring clients and negotiating service contracts is the Cloud Service Broker.
Option B, Cloud service broker, is the correct answer. A Cloud Service Broker acts as an intermediary between cloud service providers and clients, helping to negotiate service contracts, facilitate the selection of the right services, and sometimes manage the relationship between the two parties. This role is essential for acquiring new clients and ensuring the services provided meet their needs, both in terms of service levels and costs.
Option A, Inter-cloud provider, is incorrect. While inter-cloud providers may facilitate connectivity between different cloud services, they are not directly responsible for acquiring clients or negotiating contracts. Their role is more about enabling interoperability between various cloud environments.
Option C, Cloud auditor, is incorrect. A Cloud Auditor is responsible for assessing and auditing cloud services to ensure they meet required standards, security, and compliance regulations. They are not involved in acquiring clients or negotiating contracts but rather focus on the verification and evaluation of services.
Option D, Cloud service developer, is incorrect. Cloud service developers are responsible for creating and developing cloud services or applications but do not typically engage in acquiring clients or negotiating contracts. Their focus is on technical implementation rather than client acquisition or contractual agreements.
Therefore, the correct role responsible for acquiring clients and negotiating service contracts in the cloud service domain is B, Cloud service broker.
Question 5
What term defines the use of scientific techniques in the examination and interpretation of legal evidence?
A. Forensics
B. Methodical
C. Theoretical
D. Measured
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
The term Forensics refers to the application of scientific techniques and methods in the examination, analysis, and interpretation of evidence, particularly in legal contexts. Forensic science plays a critical role in criminal investigations and court proceedings, as it involves the use of specialized techniques in areas such as DNA analysis, toxicology, ballistics, and digital evidence analysis to assist in solving cases. The primary focus is on ensuring that evidence can be used in a court of law in a scientifically sound manner.
B. Methodical - While methodical refers to a systematic and orderly approach to something, it is not a specific term used to describe the application of scientific methods in the context of legal evidence analysis.
C. Theoretical - Theoretical refers to concepts or ideas that are based on theory rather than practical application. It does not specifically apply to the examination and interpretation of legal evidence through scientific methods.
D. Measured - Measured generally refers to something that has been quantified or calculated. While measurement is involved in forensic analysis, the specific term used for the scientific application in legal contexts is Forensics.
A. Forensics is the correct term that defines the application of scientific techniques for the examination and interpretation of legal evidence.
Question 6
Which role is chiefly in charge of setting up and deploying cloud services in an enterprise environment?
A. Cloud Service Deployment Manager
B. Cloud Service Business Manager
C. Cloud Service Manager
D. Cloud Service Operations Manager
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
The Cloud Service Deployment Manager is primarily responsible for the setup, deployment, and implementation of cloud services within an enterprise. This role involves overseeing the technical and operational aspects of cloud service deployment, including configuring infrastructure, integrating cloud-based applications, managing the transition from on-premises environments to cloud platforms, and ensuring that services are deployed efficiently and securely.
B. Cloud Service Business Manager - The Cloud Service Business Manager typically focuses on the business side of cloud services, including strategic planning, budgeting, vendor management, and ensuring that cloud services meet business needs. This role is not directly involved in the technical setup or deployment of cloud services.
C. Cloud Service Manager - A Cloud Service Manager generally oversees the lifecycle of cloud services and ensures their effective and efficient delivery. This role is more focused on service management, monitoring, and ensuring ongoing cloud service performance and quality, rather than the initial deployment.
D. Cloud Service Operations Manager - The Cloud Service Operations Manager focuses on managing the day-to-day operations of cloud services. This includes monitoring, troubleshooting, and optimizing cloud service performance after deployment. While important, this role is more about operational management rather than the initial deployment phase.
A. Cloud Service Deployment Manager is the role responsible for setting up and deploying cloud services in an enterprise environment.
Question 7
What is the main factor complicating the resolution of legal jurisdiction conflicts on a global scale?
A. Varying technology standards
B. Financial burden
C. Language differences
D. Absence of a global legal authority
Answer: D
Explanation:
The resolution of legal jurisdiction conflicts on a global scale is particularly complicated by the absence of a global legal authority. This absence creates challenges in determining which country's laws should apply to a given legal matter, particularly when the conflict involves international borders or transnational activities. Each country has its own legal system, laws, and enforcement mechanisms, and there is no universal authority with the power to enforce a single set of global legal standards.
Option D, Absence of a global legal authority, is the correct answer. Because there is no single global legal entity that can assert jurisdiction over disputes involving multiple countries, conflicts arise when one country’s legal system must interact with or supersede another’s. This makes it difficult to enforce laws or resolve disputes, especially in the context of international business, cybercrime, or intellectual property cases.
Option A, Varying technology standards, while important in the context of cross-border issues (e.g., data protection, encryption standards), is not the primary factor complicating jurisdictional conflicts. Technology standards can affect the application of laws, but they are secondary to the absence of a unifying global legal framework.
Option B, Financial burden, while relevant in some legal disputes, does not specifically address the jurisdictional issue. The financial burden may arise as a result of legal conflicts, but it is not the primary factor that complicates the resolution of legal jurisdiction conflicts globally.
Option C, Language differences, although a potential barrier in cross-border communication, is not the main issue in legal jurisdictional conflicts. Legal systems are more concerned with conflicting laws, treaties, and legal principles rather than language.
Therefore, the main factor complicating the resolution of legal jurisdiction conflicts on a global scale is D, Absence of a global legal authority.
Question 8
Which organization is chiefly involved in establishing and updating Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) in the U.S.?
A. ISO/IEC
B. AICPA
C. PCI Council
D. ISO
Answer: B
Explanation:
The organization that is chiefly responsible for establishing and updating Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) in the U.S. is the AICPA (American Institute of Certified Public Accountants). The AICPA has historically played a significant role in setting accounting standards in the U.S., particularly through its involvement in the development and oversight of GAAP.
Option B, AICPA, is the correct answer. The AICPA sets professional standards for certified public accountants (CPAs) and works to ensure that accounting practices adhere to the principles outlined in GAAP. The AICPA also provides guidance, resources, and updates on GAAP regulations. It plays a significant role in the development and standardization of accounting principles that ensure consistency and transparency in financial reporting.
Option A, ISO/IEC, is incorrect. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) primarily focus on developing international standards for technology, not accounting principles.
Option C, PCI Council, is incorrect. The Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council (PCI Council) focuses on setting security standards for payment card transactions and data protection, not accounting principles or GAAP.
Option D, ISO, is incorrect for the same reasons as ISO/IEC. ISO focuses on international standards across various industries but does not set accounting standards like GAAP.
Therefore, the correct organization responsible for establishing and updating GAAP in the U.S. is B, AICPA.
Question 9
Which cloud role oversees operational readiness, system monitoring, and resource inventory in cloud environments?
A. Cloud Service Business Manager
B. Cloud Service Deployment Manager
C. Cloud Service Operations Manager
D. Cloud Service Manager
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
The Cloud Service Operations Manager is responsible for overseeing the operational readiness, monitoring, and inventory management of resources in a cloud environment. This role involves ensuring that the cloud infrastructure is running smoothly and efficiently, proactively identifying and resolving issues, and maintaining visibility into the resource usage and performance. The Operations Manager's duties also include ensuring that cloud services are highly available, tracking service performance, and conducting resource planning and forecasting to maintain optimal operational capabilities.
A. Cloud Service Business Manager - The Cloud Service Business Manager is focused more on the business aspects of cloud service delivery, such as cost management, vendor relationships, and aligning cloud services with organizational objectives. This role does not directly involve overseeing system monitoring or operational readiness.
B. Cloud Service Deployment Manager - The Cloud Service Deployment Manager is primarily responsible for the deployment of cloud services, including the setup and configuration of cloud resources and systems. Although this role is essential in getting the cloud services up and running, it does not focus on the ongoing operational readiness or resource monitoring.
D. Cloud Service Manager - The Cloud Service Manager is responsible for overseeing the delivery of cloud services and ensuring that they meet the organization’s needs and performance standards. While this role involves some level of management of cloud services, it is more oriented toward service delivery than the specific operational readiness and monitoring aspects handled by the Cloud Service Operations Manager.
C. Cloud Service Operations Manager is the role focused on overseeing operational readiness, system monitoring, and managing resource inventories within the cloud environment.
Question 10
Which protocol allows computers to access block-level storage over IP networks, simulating traditional SANs?
A. SATA
B. iSCSI
C. TLS
D. SCSI
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Systems Interface) is a protocol that allows computers to access block-level storage over IP networks. It simulates a Storage Area Network (SAN) by enabling devices to communicate with storage systems using the IP protocol, making it an essential solution for implementing network-based block storage. iSCSI allows data to be transmitted over standard Ethernet networks, making it a cost-effective option for organizations that want to deploy SAN-like functionality without needing specialized fiber channel infrastructure.
A. SATA - SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) is a computer bus interface used for connecting storage devices like hard drives and solid-state drives (SSDs) to a computer. However, it is not a protocol for accessing block-level storage over IP networks. It operates over physical connections, not IP.
C. TLS - TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol used to secure communications over a computer network, such as HTTPS. It does not have any functionality related to block-level storage or SAN-like operations over IP networks.
D. SCSI - SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a set of standards for connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices. Although it has historically been used for block-level storage access, it is not a protocol for IP-based communication over networks. SCSI operates primarily over direct connections and is typically used in traditional SANs, but it doesn't work over IP networks like iSCSI does.
B. iSCSI is the correct protocol that allows computers to access block-level storage over IP networks, simulating traditional SANs.
