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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 53

Question 520

A VRRP deployment has multiple routers providing one virtual default gateway to a LAN. What general capability parallels HSRP?

  1. Failover of a shared first-hop virtual router identity
  2. Dynamic assignment of VLAN IDs based on host DNS names
  3. Elimination of the need for any healthy Layer 3 forwarding path
  4. Replacement of all IPsec encryption keys on connected clients

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

VRRP allows several routers to provide a shared virtual default-gateway IP identity for hosts on a LAN, similar in purpose to HSRP. A master router normally forwards for that virtual router while backup members can take over after a detected failure. Hosts continue using the same gateway address, reducing the need to change their configuration during a first-hop outage. This resilience is limited to gateway availability; the surviving router must still possess healthy routes and interfaces toward remote destinations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

VRRP does not allocate data VLANs from endpoint DNS hostnames. VLAN assignment is a Layer 2 access and policy design function, while first-hop redundancy maintains a common gateway address on an existing IP subnet. A host may obtain its VLAN through separate access-control features, but that behavior is not the reason routers participate in VRRP.

C:

A virtual router can assume a failed peer's gateway identity only if another member is functioning and can forward traffic. VRRP cannot compensate for a complete lack of an upstream route or a disconnected network beyond the gateway. Default-gateway failover and end-to-end routing availability are related but distinct design concerns.

D:

IPsec keys provide encryption and authentication material for protected tunnels and are not automatically rotated merely because VRRP changes which router owns a LAN's virtual gateway. A design might coordinate VPN state during high availability, but VRRP itself is not an IPsec key-management system. The protocol's core task is first-hop virtual router redundancy.

Question 521

A WLC port maps employee SSID traffic to tagged VLAN 77 on its distribution trunk, but VLAN 77 is excluded on the switch. What effect is likely?

  1. Employees cannot reach the intended wired data network through that uplink
  2. SSID beacons stop entirely on every AP because of trunk VLAN 77 only
  3. The controller turns all client stations into static NAT entries
  4. The WLC starts a new OSPF area based on SSID length

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A wireless LAN controller maps authenticated client traffic from an employee SSID into an intended VLAN, and the distribution trunk must allow that VLAN to reach the wired network. If VLAN 77 is omitted from the trunk's permitted list, associated clients may still see the SSID and authenticate but their data traffic cannot traverse that uplink on the expected segment. Align the controller policy and switch trunk allowed list, ensure VLAN 77 exists, and verify DHCP and reachability after the correction. The failure is in the client data path, not necessarily in RF advertisement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

AP beacon transmission and SSID discovery ordinarily depend on WLAN enablement, AP radios and controller policy, not solely on one tagged VLAN's eligibility across an uplink. A disallowed data VLAN can strand users after wireless association while the SSID remains visible. The question does not state that the AP management/control connection has failed or that the WLAN was disabled.

C:

Static NAT creates address-translation bindings; an incorrect WLAN VLAN mapping or trunk allowed list does not turn every associated wireless station into a permanent NAT mapping. A network edge may translate client addresses later for Internet access, but the current failure occurs before that, when the intended wired VLAN cannot traverse the distribution link.

D:

OSPF areas are routing protocol scopes created by deliberate network configuration, not by changing an SSID or by omitting a VLAN from a trunk. The WLC's WLAN-to-VLAN policy may influence whether clients can reach a routed gateway, yet it cannot create a new OSPF area based on SSID length. Repair the Layer 2 VLAN transport first.

Question 522

A route output lists via 198.51.100.7, 00:02:11, Gi0/2. Which field names the egress interface?

  1. 00:02:11, which is the VLAN ID
  2. Gi0/2, the outgoing interface toward the next hop
  3. The OSPF process number hidden in the next-hop address
  4. 198.51.100.7, which is the local interface name

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The Gi0/2 field names GigabitEthernet0/2, the local router interface through which traffic is directed toward the next hop 198.51.100.7. Route entries commonly show destination, source/metric data, a next-hop address, elapsed age and an outgoing interface. This makes Gi0/2 the correct field when diagnosing where a matching packet leaves the router. The presence of that name does not alone guarantee link or neighbor reachability; verify interface state and next-hop resolution if forwarding fails.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The elapsed value 00:02:11 in a Cisco route display is a timer indicating how long the route information has been known or since a relevant update; it is not an Ethernet VLAN identifier. VLAN IDs are configured separately on switchports and trunks. This notation provides diagnostic age context, whereas the egress interface appears as a named interface at the end of the entry.

C:

An OSPF process number is a locally configured routing-process identifier, not hidden in the octets of the next-hop address. The IP 198.51.100.7 represents a forwarding neighbor or recursive next-hop target. An OSPF process may have installed the route, but the egress interface is displayed separately as Gi0/2 in the output.

D:

An IPv4 next-hop address is a numerical address used to reach the next router, not the local operating-system name of an interface. A router can use that neighbor through different physical or logical interfaces depending on its routing and adjacency resolution. In the shown entry, the explicit Gi0/2 token, not 198.51.100.7, names the outgoing interface.

Question 523

A shared router has customers A and B using overlapping 10.0.0.0/24 routes. What design keeps their routing decisions distinct?

  1. Separate VRF routing tables bound to the appropriate tenant interfaces
  2. One global routing table with two unqualified identical destinations
  3. Shared access-port VLAN 1 for all tenant gateways
  4. Disabling every route to 10.0.0.0/24

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Virtual Routing and Forwarding maintains separate Layer 3 routing tables and forwarding instances on one physical router or supported switch. Assign customer A and B interfaces to different VRFs so each can use its own 10.0.0.0/24 route and next-hop decisions without collision in one global table. Each VRF still needs appropriate connected routes and inter-VRF policies if communication is ever required. The segregation is particularly useful for tenants with overlapping RFC1918 space, where a destination address alone cannot identify the intended customer network.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Putting two identical 10.0.0.0/24 customer routes into one unqualified global table does not by itself preserve which customer network the traffic belongs to. A normal longest-prefix lookup sees one shared destination prefix and cannot distinguish independent tenant forwarding contexts. Equal-cost paths might load-share packets incorrectly across customers rather than providing isolation, so separate VRFs are needed.

C:

Combining customers on access VLAN 1 would merge Layer 2 reachability and risk overlapping addresses and traffic exposure; it is not a method of keeping independent Layer 3 routing decisions. A tenant VLAN can be part of the design but is not a substitute for separate routing tables when both customers use the same prefix.

D:

Removing every route to the overlapping prefix would prevent both customers from reaching their internal 10.0.0.0/24 destinations, which is not the requested outcome. The business requires simultaneous support for overlapping ranges, not deletion of reachability. VRFs keep those routes available in distinct forwarding contexts and permit controlled interconnection when explicitly authorized.

Question 524

An enterprise WLAN requires employees to authenticate individually using directory credentials and a RADIUS backend. Which approach is suitable?

  1. WPA2-Enterprise or WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X and a supported EAP method
  2. One published common WPA2-Personal key for all employees
  3. Open SSID without authentication but with a hidden network name
  4. IPv4 static NAT translation per client as an authentication mechanism

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An Enterprise WPA2 or WPA3 WLAN can use 802.1X port-based access control with a compatible EAP authentication method and RADIUS backend. Each employee presents an individual identity, allowing the organization to enforce account policy, revoke access and maintain attribution instead of distributing a single shared passphrase. The wireless controller or AP acts as an authenticator, while RADIUS communicates with the identity infrastructure. Validate certificates and EAP security choices; server authentication and protected credentials are essential to resist rogue access points.

Incorrect Answers

B:

WPA2-Personal uses a shared preshared key for wireless authentication and does not ordinarily identify each employee through separate directory-backed RADIUS credentials. A common published key is difficult to revoke for one departing worker without affecting everyone and reduces individual accountability. Personal mode may be suitable for selected small deployments, but not this enterprise identity requirement.

C:

A hidden SSID only changes whether a network name is routinely advertised and provides no robust identity verification. An open WLAN without proper authentication would not satisfy a directory-backed employee access policy and can expose traffic. Even if an application performs later login, that does not implement the requested 802.1X WLAN authentication at association time.

D:

Static NAT maps IP addresses and possibly enables service reachability but cannot prove a wireless user's identity or validate RADIUS directory credentials. Translation usually occurs after the client has network access. The stated control must be part of the WLAN authentication process; per-client address mapping does not replace EAP credential and policy decisions.

Question 525

An infrastructure team wants a reviewable plan showing which cloud network resources would be created or modified before execution. Which tool feature fits?

  1. A switch's show mac address-table command
  2. SNMP trap notifications as the IaC planning engine
  3. Terraform plan for declaratively managed infrastructure
  4. Cisco CDP for provisioning storage and VPC objects

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

terraform plan compares declarative infrastructure configuration with state and the provider's reported environment to show proposed creations, updates and deletions before execution. That preview lets engineers examine dependencies, resource addresses and potentially destructive operations, then decide whether the change is authorized. A plan is not a guarantee of future outcome: concurrent changes, provider behavior and sensitive state must be considered before apply. Store plans and credentials securely and use approval controls for production deployments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The switch show mac address-table command reports learned Ethernet forwarding entries and corresponding interfaces, not a proposed cloud-infrastructure deployment. It may help investigate a physical or virtual switch's current state, but it has no declarative planning semantics for resources that Terraform intends to create, update or remove.

B:

SNMP traps notify monitoring systems of device events and do not calculate a dependency graph or proposed resource changes for infrastructure-as-code definitions. The team needs to review intended configuration before applying it, not to receive unsolicited alerts after resources have already been altered. Monitoring and planning serve different stages of operations.

D:

CDP advertises Cisco device identity and adjacent port characteristics on a local link, making it useful for network discovery. It cannot parse Terraform modules or create cloud network resources such as VPCs and subnets. The requested report is a planned infrastructure mutation derived from code and remote state, not a list of Layer 2 neighbors.

Question 526

An engineer wants unsolicited alert messages from a network device instead of waiting for periodic polling. Which SNMP behavior fits?

  1. A DNS CNAME record updated for each CRC error
  2. SNMP trap or inform notification to the management system
  3. A local console logout as the only monitoring method
  4. An OSPF cost update for every management alert

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

SNMP traps and informs let a managed device send event notifications to a configured management system without waiting for the next manager poll. A trap is typically unacknowledged, while an inform expects an acknowledgment and can provide more reliable notification behavior. Configure suitable destinations, event categories, secure SNMP credentials and monitoring filters to avoid excessive alerts. These messages supplement rather than replace polling of current state, since a notification can be lost or miss important context.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A DNS CNAME record aliases one domain name to another; it is not an event notification generated by an SNMP device after a CRC error. A management system might resolve the router's hostname through DNS when contacting it, but name resolution does not deliver unsolicited operational alarms from its SNMP agent.

C:

Logging out of a console session affects local administrative access and does not notify an external monitoring platform of interface errors or device events. Operators might inspect the console during troubleshooting, but that is manual observation rather than an unsolicited SNMP notification. The requirement asks the device to send an alert proactively to a manager.

D:

Changing an OSPF cost influences path selection for routes but is not a general event-message transport for management alerts. Artificially modifying routing metrics for every error event could disrupt forwarding. A router may generate syslog or SNMP notifications about OSPF state changes, yet those messages should be sent through monitoring features instead of encoding alarms in link-state costs.

Question 527

An IPv6 subnetting tool examines prefix 2001:db8:88:12::/124. Which final 16-bit address range lies entirely inside that /124 prefix?

  1. 2001:db8:88:12::10 through ::1f
  2. 2001:db8:88:12::0 through ::ff
  3. 2001:db8:88:12::0 through ::f
  4. 2001:db8:88:12::f0 through ::ff

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An IPv6 /124 fixes 124 of the 128 bits and leaves four low-order bits variable. Four host bits produce sixteen addresses, with final-hextet hexadecimal values from 0 through f for a prefix aligned at::0. Therefore 2001:db8:88:12::0 through 2001:db8:88:12::f is the complete indicated block. IPv6 does not reserve a conventional directed-broadcast address as IPv4 does, so this is a prefix-membership calculation rather than an IPv4 usable-host count.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The final hextet values 0x10 through 0x1f belong to the next /124-sized block, not the prefix anchored at::0. A /124 leaves four host bits, yielding sixteen values at a time. This range has the right size but starts at the wrong 16-value boundary.

B:

The range ending::ff contains 256 values in the last hextet, equivalent to eight host bits and a /120 span when earlier bits are fixed. It is broader than the requested /124 and would include many adjacent sixteen-address blocks. The actual final four host bits limit the prefix to::0–::f.

D:

The::f0–::ff range is also sixteen values, but it starts at hexadecimal f0 instead of zero and belongs to another /124 subnet. Correct block size alone is insufficient: the network-prefix bits must match the specified 2001:db8:88:12::/124 value. Select the aligned low range rather than a neighboring block.

Question 528

A branch has functioning HTTPS management but auditors find administrators still using HTTP URLs that disclose session credentials. What should be enforced?

  1. Telnet with a long password and no encrypted transport
  2. Plain HTTP with a more obscure TCP port number
  3. TFTP service running continuously as a substitute for HTTPS
  4. HTTPS-only web management with valid certificate validation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Require administrators to use HTTPS for web-based device management and disable or redirect insecure HTTP where supported and appropriate. HTTPS uses TLS to protect session credentials and management data in transit, while valid certificate verification helps ensure the browser connects to the intended device or approved management endpoint. Use trusted certificates, current TLS settings, strong authentication and controlled management-network access. Merely having HTTPS available is insufficient if administrators can still log in through unprotected HTTP.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Telnet carries a remote command session without encrypted transport, so even a long password could be exposed to interception on an untrusted management path. Replacing an insecure HTTP login with Telnet would merely move the credential-exposure problem to another cleartext protocol. The team needs properly protected web management and account controls rather than another insecure administrative channel.

B:

Moving HTTP to an unusual TCP port does not add cryptographic confidentiality or server authentication. An observer able to inspect the session can still see sensitive credentials or cookies unless a separate protection mechanism is used. Security through obscurity might reduce accidental scans but cannot satisfy the auditor's requirement for encrypted administrative sessions.

C:

TFTP is a basic file-transfer protocol and does not provide a secure interactive management web application. Running it continuously would add another exposed service and is not an appropriate substitute for HTTPS configuration pages. It also lacks built-in encryption and interactive login semantics, so it cannot solve the stated credential-disclosure risk.

Question 529

A learned dynamic switch MAC entry has not seen traffic beyond the configured aging interval. What happens in ordinary operation?

  1. The stale dynamic entry ages out and the next unknown destination can be flooded
  2. The switch changes the VLAN native ID to match the lost host
  3. The switch permanently binds the old MAC to its previously learned port
  4. The router automatically changes its IPv4 default route

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A dynamically learned MAC table entry is normally removed after its aging timer expires without relevant refreshing traffic. If the switch later receives a frame to that now-unknown destination, ordinary learning-switch behavior is to flood it to eligible forwarding ports within the same VLAN, excluding ingress, until the destination is learned again. Aging prevents stale port bindings from persisting after endpoints move or disconnect. Static or secure MAC entries can have different lifecycles, but the question specifies an ordinary dynamic entry.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The aging of a single MAC forwarding entry does not cause the switch to rewrite its configured native VLAN on a trunk. Native VLAN settings define how untagged frames are handled on a link and remain governed by port configuration. A MAC address aging out only affects the current destination-to-port lookup for that VLAN.

C:

A dynamic MAC entry is not a permanent binding: it is relearned from incoming source frames and expires after inactivity under the configured aging behavior. Permanent mappings require separate static or secure configuration. Retaining a stale dynamic entry forever could misdirect traffic after endpoint movement, which is precisely what the aging mechanism helps avoid.

D:

IP default-route selection is a Layer 3 operation in a router's forwarding table and is not automatically recalculated when an access switch forgets one destination MAC. A router might independently resolve a neighbor's MAC again, but that does not imply changing its next-hop route to some new destination. The question concerns a Layer 2 learned entry.

Question 530

A company identifies unauthorized physical access as a risk for distribution closets. Which mitigation directly addresses it?

  1. Increase every switch's OSPF hello interval
  2. Restrict cabinet entry with locks and audited badge access
  3. Set all user DNS TTLs to zero
  4. Remove VLAN tags from the WAN interface

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Locks, controlled badge access and accountable entry records directly reduce unauthorized access to distribution cabinets and network closets. Restricting keys or badges to approved staff makes it harder to reach consoles, cables and removable media, while auditable logs support investigation of suspicious entry. These controls should be combined with visitor escort, periodic entitlement review and prompt deactivation of lost credentials. Physical security complements management-plane authentication because possession of a switch can expose ports and recovery paths even when remote access is protected.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF hello intervals determine the frequency of routing-protocol discovery messages on participating interfaces; they do not control who can enter a distribution closet. Changing them may disrupt routing adjacencies if neighbors use incompatible settings. A physical access risk requires entrance and cabinet security controls, not a tuning of routing timers.

C:

DNS TTL determines how long resolvers or clients may cache a DNS resource record, not whether someone is permitted to access a network closet. Setting TTLs to zero would increase resolver workload without providing badge verification or door locking. The risk arises from physical entry to infrastructure, so naming-service behavior does not address its cause.

D:

VLAN tagging governs logical Layer 2 segmentation and can influence which traffic traverses trunks. Removing those tags from a WAN interface does not prevent a person from entering a closet, unplugging equipment or attaching an unauthorized device. It might actually disrupt network connectivity and security segmentation while leaving the physical vulnerability unchanged.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests