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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 47

Question 460

A host has default gateway 192.168.25.1 and two FHRP routers behind it. What remains stable during a planned active-router switchover?

  1. The OSPF router ID of all routers at once
  2. The physical burned-in MAC address of each router interface
  3. The host's configured virtual default-gateway IP address
  4. The DNS MX priority value in the local resolver

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

First-hop redundancy protocols such as HSRP expose a virtual gateway IP on the client VLAN. During a planned change of active router, the current owner of the virtual identity can change while the host retains 192.168.25.1 as its configured default gateway. This avoids reconfiguring DHCP options or static client gateways at every role transition. A short convergence interval or gratuitous ARP behavior may be observed, and upstream routing still has to work beyond the gateway.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An OSPF router ID identifies a routing protocol participant and is independent of the default-gateway virtual IP presented to hosts. HSRP active-role movement does not automatically reassign every routing process ID across the network. Stable host default-gateway addressing is the continuity mechanism; routing identities may remain distinct and unchanged.

B:

The burned-in or configured physical MAC addresses of the two routers are generally different and do not have to converge to one common hardware value during failover. HSRP uses a virtual gateway identity appropriate to its group and version to preserve host neighbor resolution. Physical NIC MAC values need not become identical when standby becomes active.

D:

DNS MX priority controls mail exchanger preference in a domain and is unrelated to HSRP election or a client's IP first-hop configuration. An HSRP switchover does not require editing resolver mail records. The stable item described is the virtual gateway address at the network layer, not application naming metadata.

Question 461

An LACP EtherChannel has one side mode active and the other mode passive with matching links. What should happen?

  1. No bundle can form unless both sides are passive
  2. LACP negotiation can form the bundle because the active side initiates
  3. Every link automatically becomes a routed IP interface
  4. The links forward as unrelated individual active paths with no aggregation

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

LACP active mode transmits negotiation messages, while passive mode listens and responds when a compatible active peer begins the exchange. Therefore the active/passive combination can establish an EtherChannel as long as both sides agree on physical link parameters, switching mode and other bundle constraints. Verify member aggregation and port-channel state in the switch's EtherChannel summary rather than assuming the configuration was accepted. Passive/passive would fail for lack of an initiator, but that is not the configuration here.

Incorrect Answers

A:

LACP does not require both peers to be passive; in fact, two passive ends generally do not initiate the negotiation needed to form a dynamic bundle. The standard interoperable combinations are active/active or active/passive when member settings are compatible. In this scenario one switch is already active, satisfying the initiation requirement rather than preventing aggregation.

C:

LACP bundles may be Layer 2 switchport channels or suitable Layer 3 routed port-channels; the negotiation modes do not automatically convert every member into a routed IP interface. The logical interface's forwarding role must be configured separately and kept consistent among members. An active/passive combination tells how peers negotiate aggregation, not whether the bundle operates at Layer 2 or Layer 3.

D:

If LACP successfully negotiates the compatible members, they form one logical port-channel rather than remaining unrelated parallel forwarding paths. Treating independent links as multiple active Layer 2 paths without aggregation can create spanning-tree considerations and different load-sharing behavior. The point of this configuration is a coherent bundled interface whose member distribution is handled according to the platform's EtherChannel rules.

Question 462

The same OSPF route shows [110/31] after the prefix. What does 31 signify?

  1. A /31 destination prefix regardless of the route mask
  2. A 31-second mandatory OSPF dead interval
  3. The administrative distance, ahead of the slash
  4. The OSPF metric or cost for the installed route

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

In a common IOS OSPF route entry, the bracket [110/31] means administrative distance 110 followed by OSPF cost 31. Cost reflects the accumulated metric used by OSPF when choosing between routes to a given prefix, not a mandatory interval or the subnet length. The OSPF source code and destination prefix are displayed elsewhere in the same route entry. Distinguish this path metric from the administrative-distance comparison used when another protocol also offers the identical destination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A prefix length appears as part of the destination, for example 10.200.12.0/24, and describes how many address bits identify the network. The value 31 after the slash inside [110/31] is not another prefix mask. Routing-table bracket syntax has separate fields for administrative distance and the route's metric or cost; reading the wrong slash leads to incorrect subnet interpretation.

B:

OSPF dead intervals are per-interface neighbor-liveness settings and are not encoded as the second number in a route-table cost bracket. An adjacency may use different configured timers while the route metric happens to equal 31. To inspect hello/dead timers, use OSPF interface diagnostics instead of interpreting the route's path cost as seconds.

C:

The administrative distance is the first value in the standard IOS [distance/metric] notation. For this OSPF route it is 110, not 31; the 31 follows the slash. AD helps compare different routing information sources for the same prefix, while OSPF's metric helps select among eligible paths of that routing protocol.

Question 463

A switch learns host A in VLAN 10 on Gi1/0/2, but then receives an unknown destination MAC in VLAN 10 from Gi1/0/2. Where does it forward the unknown unicast?

  1. Only to ports that belong exclusively to VLAN 20
  2. Through the switch control-plane CPU as an ordinary routed packet
  3. To eligible forwarding ports in VLAN 10 except the ingress port
  4. Back out the exact ingress interface and nowhere else

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

When a switch receives an Ethernet unicast frame with a destination MAC absent from its VLAN 10 forwarding table, normal learning-switch behavior is to flood a copy to eligible forwarding ports in VLAN 10 except the ingress port. That gives the unknown destination a chance to receive it while keeping traffic inside the VLAN's broadcast domain. The source MAC can still be learned on Gi1/0/2. Security, storm-control or unknown-unicast-suppression features can alter this default, but none is stated here.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VLAN 20 is a separate Layer 2 broadcast domain from VLAN 10, so a frame received in VLAN 10 cannot simply be flooded exclusively into VLAN 20. The switch maintains MAC learning and flooding scope per VLAN. Choosing unrelated VLAN 20 ports would violate segmentation and could expose traffic to unauthorized endpoints.

B:

Unknown-unicast forwarding in a learning Ethernet switch is ordinarily a data-plane flood within the appropriate VLAN, not an automatic conversion to a routed packet processed by the switch CPU. A multilayer switch can route IP between subnets when configured, but the question concerns a destination MAC not yet known for same-VLAN Layer 2 delivery. IP forwarding is not the fallback for every unknown Ethernet destination.

D:

A learning switch does not normally send the unknown-unicast frame back out the same interface on which it arrived because that would return the packet toward its sender without exploring other possible destinations. The eligible VLAN 10 forwarding ports are the flood scope, excluding ingress. The fact that host A is already learned on that port does not identify the new unknown destination there.

Question 464

A Cisco WLC GUI has a staff WLAN profile with SSID STAFF and WPA2-Personal selected, but clients are rejected after a passphrase reset. What should be verified?

  1. The configured pre-shared key and compatible WPA2 encryption mode match the client profile
  2. The AP's console password is copied into every client as the WLAN key
  3. The core switch's OSPF DR is set to priority zero
  4. The DNS MX priority matches the SSID's VLAN number

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

WPA2-Personal relies on a shared passphrase-based credential from which client and AP derive the keys for a protected association. If administrators reset the WLAN passphrase, clients retaining the old PSK or an incompatible configured encryption/security mode will fail the handshake even if they can see the SSID. Verify the controller's current key, supported WPA2/AES settings and the user device profile, then update clients through a secure approved process. Do not display or distribute secrets unnecessarily during troubleshooting.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The AP's console password protects local management access and is unrelated to the WLAN passphrase used for WPA2-Personal association. Copying it into every client would disclose a privileged management secret without fixing the correct client security profile. Administrative device credentials and WLAN authentication keys should remain separate, appropriately protected identities.

C:

OSPF designated-router priority affects routing-protocol election on broadcast segments and has no role in WPA2-Personal passphrase verification between clients and an access point. The clients are rejected during wireless authentication after a key change, not because the wired core elected an OSPF DR. Examine the WLAN security configuration before changing routing priorities.

D:

DNS MX priority determines mail-exchanger preference for a domain, not association to an 802.11 SSID or its VLAN mapping. An MX record cannot repair a mismatch between the updated controller passphrase and a cached client PSK. Wireless authentication must succeed before ordinary client DNS service even becomes useful, making this an unrelated application naming control.

Question 465

An API JSON payload contains {"count":12,"online":true,"name":"sw1"}. What type is the value of online?

  1. Boolean true
  2. String containing the letters true in quotes
  3. A nested object represented by braces around true
  4. Number equal to one because true is nonzero

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The unquoted literal true is one of JSON's two Boolean values, representing a true/false state rather than text or a numeric count. In this object, online:true can be interpreted as a device status flag, while count:12 is numeric and name:"sw1" is a string. A parser should preserve those types rather than compare the Boolean to the string "true" without conversion. JSON uses lowercase true and false specifically for this data type.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A JSON string must be enclosed in double quotation marks, as shown by the "sw1" value for name. The token true in the online field is not quoted, so a standards-conforming parser treats it as Boolean. A script that expects the text "true" could incorrectly evaluate the field after deserialization.

C:

A nested JSON object uses braces containing named properties, for example {"key":"value"}. The online member contains only the Boolean literal true, not another brace-delimited object. The entire payload is itself one object, but that does not make every member an object type. Inspect the value's own delimiters to identify its type.

D:

Some programming languages represent Boolean values in ways that can convert to numeric one or zero, but JSON's grammar keeps true and numbers as distinct types. The field online:true is not the JSON number 1. Treating it as a numeric counter could lead to incorrect API validation or reporting. Its intended meaning is a true/false state.

Question 466

A router should classify voice traffic before prioritizing it for transmission. What is the purpose of QoS classification?

  1. Convert all IPv4 packets to IPv6 addresses
  2. Encrypt all classified traffic automatically with a single shared key
  3. Identify packets or flows that share a service-treatment category
  4. Force every flow into the same undifferentiated FIFO class

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

QoS classification examines configured packet characteristics such as DSCP, access-list matches, application or flow information to associate traffic with a service category. That classification lets subsequent policies mark, queue, police or schedule voice differently from bulk data. Correct selection is essential because priority queuing only helps when the intended voice flows enter the right class. Classification alone does not guarantee bandwidth; the next QoS stages apply the actual forwarding behavior under congestion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

QoS classification does not perform IPv4-to-IPv6 address translation or change the network-layer protocol family of packets. Dual-stack migration requires independent addressing, routing and potentially translation techniques. The router's voice prioritization workflow instead needs to identify which packets should receive the chosen queuing or marking treatment.

B:

Encryption is provided by separate security mechanisms such as IPsec or TLS, not automatically when a packet is placed into a QoS class. A voice packet can be classified as latency-sensitive without its payload being encrypted by the classifier. Classification selects a treatment category and should not be confused with confidentiality or authentication functions.

D:

Forcing every flow into one indistinguishable FIFO class removes the ability to give voice different handling from bulk transfers. FIFO may be adequate on an uncongested link but cannot implement class-based voice priority when traffic competes for limited bandwidth. QoS classification exists precisely to distinguish categories that need different treatment rather than collapse them all together.

Question 467

An IPv4 router has a selected route to 10.30.144.0/29 through on-link next hop 192.0.2.26, but ARP for that next hop never receives a reply. Which forwarding diagnosis is most accurate?

  1. Change the /29 route to a /20 so ARP packets are no longer required
  2. Use a default DNS server to resolve the next hop MAC automatically
  3. Choose the oldest route in running configuration to bypass Ethernet forwarding
  4. The route can be selected, but Ethernet delivery fails until next-hop Layer 2 resolution works

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Destination lookup can select the installed /29 prefix for traffic to 10.30.144.0/29, but forwarding over Ethernet also needs a usable mapping for next hop 192.0.2.26. If ARP cannot resolve that neighbor, packets may queue briefly and then be dropped despite a correct route table entry. Verify the connected prefix, VLAN membership, interface state and whether the next-hop device answers ARP; do not confuse a successful route match with guaranteed Layer 2 delivery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broadening a destination route from /29 to /20 changes which IP addresses follow the next hop, but does not eliminate the need to resolve an on-link Ethernet neighbor's MAC. It could also misroute additional networks. The issue is failing local next-hop reachability after route selection, so troubleshoot ARP and link state instead of changing the mask.

B:

DNS translates supported names into address records; it does not substitute for ARP when a router must deliver an IPv4 packet to a directly reachable Ethernet next hop. Here 192.0.2.26 is already a numerical IP, so name resolution cannot establish its destination MAC. Check the connected interface and ARP exchange instead.

C:

The textual age or order of route statements does not supply an Ethernet frame destination when next-hop ARP resolution fails. A router can choose a route but still be unable to transmit toward its neighbor. Examine route eligibility and interface counters rather than treating chronological configuration order as a layer-2 troubleshooting tool.

Question 468

A nonroot switch receives superior BPDUs over two different links, each with a different total path cost to the same root. What ordinarily determines its root port?

  1. The path offering the lowest root-path cost, with bridge and port tie-breakers as needed
  2. Both links always become root ports and forward simultaneously
  3. The port attached to the newest Ethernet cable regardless of cost
  4. The port whose VLAN ID is numerically highest

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

STP selects one root port on a nonroot bridge by comparing received priority vectors, normally preferring the path with the lowest total root-path cost to the same root bridge. If path costs tie, bridge and port identifiers provide subsequent deterministic tie-breaks. This keeps a preferred forwarding path while redundant alternatives may block to avoid loops. The root-port decision depends on the calculated path to the root, not how recently a cable was installed.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A switch ordinarily has one root port for a given spanning-tree instance, even if multiple uplinks provide alternate paths. Forwarding simultaneously on all redundant Layer 2 paths without appropriate aggregation or blocking could create a loop and MAC flapping. The backup path remains eligible under the protocol but is not also another independent root port under normal conditions.

C:

Cable installation date has no standard place in the STP root-port priority comparison. A newer cable might have a different speed and therefore path cost, but its age alone does not decide the port role. The question explicitly states that total path costs differ, making that measured routing-to-root property the relevant basis.

D:

VLAN identifiers distinguish Layer 2 segments and can select different per-VLAN STP instances, but within an instance the switch chooses its root port based on received bridge and path information. The numerically highest VLAN ID does not make an uplink preferred. Both candidate ports serve the same root and must be compared by their actual total path costs.

Question 469

A data center wants to monitor suspicious east-west packets but must not make its access switches route them. Which appliance function fits the inspection requirement?

  1. Ask a DHCP server to inspect every packet payload
  2. Use a passive patch panel as the only detection layer
  3. Change the switch native VLAN to mirror malicious payloads
  4. Deploy an intrusion prevention service at the authorized inspection point

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An intrusion prevention service placed at an authorized inspection point can analyze selected east-west flows for suspicious patterns and, when configured inline, block traffic that matches policy. It does not require reconfiguring every access switch as a router; instead the topology directs or mirrors traffic to appropriate inspection infrastructure. If the requirement is alert-only rather than blocking, an IDS mode may be preferable, but among the given choices a capable intrusion-prevention inspection service provides the actual content analysis. Validate placement and throughput before enabling enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DHCP servers distribute client IP leases and associated options; they are not general network intrusion inspection engines that examine east-west payloads for malicious signatures. A DHCP server might log lease identities for investigations, but that is limited address-allocation telemetry. The data center needs a dedicated security inspection function rather than a basic service responsible for handing out addresses.

B:

A passive patch panel connects or rearranges cabling without analyzing packet content, maintaining detection signatures or generating security alerts. A network tap may copy traffic to a separate sensor, but the panel itself is not the detection logic. The case requires an appliance or service capable of inspecting the suspicious east-west packets, not merely a physical connection point.

C:

A trunk native VLAN setting determines handling of untagged frames and does not inherently mirror or analyze malicious packets. Changing native VLAN can disrupt segmentation without providing detection. Packet inspection requires traffic to reach a supported security sensor or inline enforcement service through an authorized network design, separate from ordinary VLAN tagging.

Question 470

An adversary sends malformed packets to trigger a known parser defect on a router. What is the attempted action called?

  1. Normal switch MAC aging after inactivity
  2. Patching the parser and validating the release
  3. An OSPF route metric adjustment for better load balancing
  4. Exploitation of a vulnerability using a crafted input

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Exploitation means attempting to use a vulnerability to produce unintended behavior, such as a crash, privilege change or unauthorized access. The attacker sends malformed packets crafted to trigger a known parser defect, matching an exploit attempt even if success is not yet confirmed. A vulnerability is the underlying weakness; the crafted malicious input is an attempt to exercise it. Device logs, capture evidence and vendor advisories would help establish whether the attempt succeeded and what impact occurred.

Incorrect Answers

A:

MAC aging removes stale Layer 2 forwarding-table entries after inactivity and is a routine switch behavior, not an attacker sending malicious malformed packets at a router. It does not exploit a software parser or cause a device to mishandle specially crafted input. The scenario explicitly identifies intentional triggering of a documented defect, so ordinary address-table maintenance is unrelated.

B:

Installing a vendor fix and testing the new release is mitigation of a known weakness. The adversary instead supplies an input intended to activate the flaw, which is the opposite of remediation. Patch validation is an appropriate defensive response after assessing the affected version, but it does not describe the attacker's attempted action.

C:

Changing an OSPF metric affects routing path selection and is a legitimate control-plane configuration operation when authorized. It is not, by itself, the exploitation of a parser defect through malformed packets. The malformed input may traverse a routed link, but its purpose is to induce unintended software behavior rather than optimize OSPF load balancing.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests