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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 8

Question 70

A DevOps team is reviewing: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention.
  2. Distribute partition keys appropriately and scale stream capacity based on measured demand.
  3. Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.
  4. Inspect role trust and permissions, routing policy and operational incident access.
  5. Create an application-aware recovery sequence with replay safety and reconciled checkpoints.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. The complementary correct action is: Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies. Both follow the principle: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

C:

Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. The complementary correct action is: Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. Both follow the principle: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Distribute partition keys appropriately and scale stream capacity based on measured demand. This is suitable for another situation: A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention.) and design change (Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.). These two steps address: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.

D:

Inspect role trust and permissions, routing policy and operational incident access. This is suitable for another situation: The secondary service is healthy, but a disaster exercise reveals operators cannot change DNS because the failover role lacks permission. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention.) and design change (Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.). These two steps address: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.

E:

Create an application-aware recovery sequence with replay safety and reconciled checkpoints. This is suitable for another situation: A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention.) and design change (Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.). These two steps address: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.

Question 71

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Adjust the approved OU guardrail or permitted design rather than bypassing IAM evaluation.
  2. Enable sufficient flow log scope with protected centralized analysis.
  3. Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing.
  4. Automate drift detection, alerting and approved reconciliation for critical stacks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing. Its validation is: A sample finding appears centrally with originating account and severity. The principle is: Security findings need aggregation, deduplication and accountable response in multi-account environments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Adjust the approved OU guardrail or permitted design rather than bypassing IAM evaluation. This instead addresses a different case: A developer's administrator IAM policy still fails to launch an unapproved service because an OU SCP contains an explicit deny. For the stated situation (A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow.), the better engineering action is: Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing. The deciding distinction is: Security findings need aggregation, deduplication and accountable response in multi-account environments.

B:

Enable sufficient flow log scope with protected centralized analysis. This instead addresses a different case: Security detects unauthorized port scans but cannot determine which source attempted connections to a sensitive subnet. For the stated situation (A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow.), the better engineering action is: Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing. The deciding distinction is: Security findings need aggregation, deduplication and accountable response in multi-account environments.

D:

Automate drift detection, alerting and approved reconciliation for critical stacks. This instead addresses a different case: A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access. For the stated situation (A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow.), the better engineering action is: Configure centralized Security Hub findings ingestion and approved incident routing. The deciding distinction is: Security findings need aggregation, deduplication and accountable response in multi-account environments.

Question 72

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Central log delivery requires compatible bucket policies and KMS key permissions for service principals.
  2. Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues.
  3. Metrics must preserve useful dimensions for diagnostic isolation.
  4. Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher. Relevant first evidence: Inspect installed CloudWatch agent, metric namespace, dimensions and memory alarms. The resulting controlled response is: Configure CloudWatch agent collection of memory metrics and a justified alarm threshold.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Central log delivery requires compatible bucket policies and KMS key permissions for service principals. This instead addresses a different case: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key. For the stated situation (An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics.), the better principle is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher. The deciding distinction is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

B:

Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues. This instead addresses a different case: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. For the stated situation (An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics.), the better principle is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher. The deciding distinction is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

C:

Metrics must preserve useful dimensions for diagnostic isolation. This instead addresses a different case: A dashboard aggregates all Lambda error counts into one line and cannot reveal which function causes the failures. For the stated situation (An EC2 application runs out of memory while CPU remains low, but CloudWatch dashboards contain only default EC2 CPU metrics.), the better principle is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher. The deciding distinction is: Guest operating system memory usage generally requires a configured agent or custom metric publisher.

Question 73

A DevOps team is reviewing: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Configure central Security Hub administration and cross-Region aggregation as appropriate.
  2. Review parameter paths, KMS encryption settings and consuming IAM roles.
  3. Run drift detection and compare effective security group properties with template state.
  4. Restore authorized configuration by an approved stack update or reconcile a documented intentional change.
  5. Review synthesized CloudFormation, construct defaults, bucket policies and deployed exceptions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Run drift detection and compare effective security group properties with template state. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template. The complementary correct action is: Restore authorized configuration by an approved stack update or reconcile a documented intentional change. Both follow the principle: Infrastructure drift should be detected and reconciled through controlled IaC changes.

D:

Restore authorized configuration by an approved stack update or reconcile a documented intentional change. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template. The complementary correct action is: Run drift detection and compare effective security group properties with template state. Both follow the principle: Infrastructure drift should be detected and reconciled through controlled IaC changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure central Security Hub administration and cross-Region aggregation as appropriate. This is suitable for another situation: Security Hub findings remain isolated in 40 member accounts and security operations cannot reliably track enterprise-wide exposure. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Run drift detection and compare effective security group properties with template state.) and design change (Restore authorized configuration by an approved stack update or reconcile a documented intentional change.). These two steps address: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template.

B:

Review parameter paths, KMS encryption settings and consuming IAM roles. This is suitable for another situation: Multiple environments share unqualified /db/password parameter names and a production application accidentally reads a staging secret. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Run drift detection and compare effective security group properties with template state.) and design change (Restore authorized configuration by an approved stack update or reconcile a documented intentional change.). These two steps address: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template.

E:

Review synthesized CloudFormation, construct defaults, bucket policies and deployed exceptions. This is suitable for another situation: A reusable AWS CDK construct creates S3 buckets with public access enabled unless individual teams remember to override the setting. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Run drift detection and compare effective security group properties with template state.) and design change (Restore authorized configuration by an approved stack update or reconcile a documented intentional change.). These two steps address: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template.

Question 74

A DevOps team is reviewing: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Fix the infrastructure module and enable appropriate Block Public Access plus monitoring.
  2. Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration.
  3. Inspect S3 inventory, Macie coverage, custom identifiers and finding aggregation.
  4. Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.
  5. Inspect Access Analyzer findings, service last accessed data and CloudTrail usage.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted. The complementary correct action is: Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. Both follow the principle: Managed public certificate renewal depends on sustained validation prerequisites.

D:

Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted. The complementary correct action is: Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration. Both follow the principle: Managed public certificate renewal depends on sustained validation prerequisites.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fix the infrastructure module and enable appropriate Block Public Access plus monitoring. This is suitable for another situation: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.) and design change (Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration.). These two steps address: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted.

C:

Inspect S3 inventory, Macie coverage, custom identifiers and finding aggregation. This is suitable for another situation: An enterprise stores thousands of S3 objects across accounts and needs to discover unclassified personal records at scale. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.) and design change (Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration.). These two steps address: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted.

E:

Inspect Access Analyzer findings, service last accessed data and CloudTrail usage. This is suitable for another situation: A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.) and design change (Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration.). These two steps address: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted.

Question 75

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior.
  2. The standby Region serves traffic when primary-region services are deliberately unavailable.
  3. Load tests stay within payment provider quotas while preserving request handling guarantees.
  4. A simulated primary origin fault serves approved content from the fallback source.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The standby Region serves traffic when primary-region services are deliberately unavailable. The approved action is: Provision approved regional secrets and key access before declaring standby ready. The risk principle is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior. This instead addresses a different case: Two application instances run in distinct AZs but all sessions are stored on one instance and users lose carts during target failures. For the stated situation (A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region.), the better verification is: The standby Region serves traffic when primary-region services are deliberately unavailable. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

C:

Load tests stay within payment provider quotas while preserving request handling guarantees. This instead addresses a different case: A public API invokes Lambda and saturates an external payment service when automatic concurrency grows after a marketing event. For the stated situation (A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region.), the better verification is: The standby Region serves traffic when primary-region services are deliberately unavailable. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

D:

A simulated primary origin fault serves approved content from the fallback source. This instead addresses a different case: A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket. For the stated situation (A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region.), the better verification is: The standby Region serves traffic when primary-region services are deliberately unavailable. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

Question 76

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A platform group allows developers to create application IAM roles, but one developer creates a new role granting AdministratorAccess. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. An approved partner role can assume access while an unrelated principal is denied.
  2. An intended object is readable and unauthorized prefixes remain denied.
  3. Permitted connection and return traffic succeed while prohibited access is denied.
  4. A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role. The approved action is: Require approved permissions boundaries for created roles and deny removal or bypass. The risk principle is: Delegated role creation should be constrained by a permission boundary and governing policies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An approved partner role can assume access while an unrelated principal is denied. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment service assumes a role in a third-party account, but the trust policy permits any AWS principal in the partner account. For the stated situation (A platform group allows developers to create application IAM roles, but one developer creates a new role granting AdministratorAccess.), the better verification is: A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role. The deciding distinction is: Delegated role creation should be constrained by a permission boundary and governing policies.

B:

An intended object is readable and unauthorized prefixes remain denied. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda role has s3:GetObject but gets AccessDenied reading a bucket in another account. For the stated situation (A platform group allows developers to create application IAM roles, but one developer creates a new role granting AdministratorAccess.), the better verification is: A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role. The deciding distinction is: Delegated role creation should be constrained by a permission boundary and governing policies.

C:

Permitted connection and return traffic succeed while prohibited access is denied. This instead addresses a different case: A service needs stateful application access, but network engineers rely on one stateless NACL inbound allow rule and response traffic is blocked. For the stated situation (A platform group allows developers to create application IAM roles, but one developer creates a new role granting AdministratorAccess.), the better verification is: A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role. The deciding distinction is: Delegated role creation should be constrained by a permission boundary and governing policies.

Question 77

Before changing production, engineers find: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Map recovery dependencies, state transitions, approvals and rollback criteria.
  2. Inspect automated backup settings, log retention, restore window and business RPO.
  3. Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention.
  4. Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. The governing principle is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period. The next controlled engineering decision is: Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Map recovery dependencies, state transitions, approvals and rollback criteria. This instead addresses a different case: A failover runbook manually changes 14 DNS and compute settings in a fixed order; quarterly drills frequently skip steps. For the stated situation (A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.), the better investigation is: Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. The deciding distinction is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

B:

Inspect automated backup settings, log retention, restore window and business RPO. This instead addresses a different case: A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions. For the stated situation (A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.), the better investigation is: Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. The deciding distinction is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

D:

Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls. This instead addresses a different case: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. For the stated situation (A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident.), the better investigation is: Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. The deciding distinction is: Backup retention should resist malicious or accidental deletion for the required period.

Question 78

An engineering review identifies: A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs. Which shortcut is MOST unsafe for this exact condition?

  1. Retry the failed payload forever without isolation or alarm.
  2. Increase CPU scaling target without addressing missing instance capacity.
  3. Deploy a breaking schema change without updating any subscribing consumers.
  4. Use the arrival timestamp as a unique identifier for each retry of the same business event.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use the arrival timestamp as a unique identifier for each retry of the same business event. The case is: A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs. A safer engineering response is: Validate the webhook signature and store an idempotency key before issuing jobs. The deciding principle is: External event ingress must authenticate and deduplicate repeated delivery attempts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Retry the failed payload forever without isolation or alarm. This instead addresses a different case: A broken message repeatedly fails an event-driven worker and blocks useful progress while on-call has no way to inspect it. For the stated situation (A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Use the arrival timestamp as a unique identifier for each retry of the same business event. The deciding distinction is: External event ingress must authenticate and deduplicate repeated delivery attempts.

B:

Increase CPU scaling target without addressing missing instance capacity. This instead addresses a different case: An Auto Scaling group repeatedly fails to launch enough instances in one AZ despite other AZs having capacity. For the stated situation (A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Use the arrival timestamp as a unique identifier for each retry of the same business event. The deciding distinction is: External event ingress must authenticate and deduplicate repeated delivery attempts.

C:

Deploy a breaking schema change without updating any subscribing consumers. This instead addresses a different case: A producer changes the event payload field name and consumers silently ignore new events while their SQS queues fill. For the stated situation (A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Use the arrival timestamp as a unique identifier for each retry of the same business event. The deciding distinction is: External event ingress must authenticate and deduplicate repeated delivery attempts.

Question 79

Before changing production, engineers find: A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect provisioning workflow, organization rules, configuration recorders and baselines.
  2. Review duplicated templates, parameter contracts, dependencies and current deviations.
  3. Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership.
  4. Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. The governing principle is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced. The next controlled engineering decision is: Use controlled resource import and reconcile drift while preserving the live queue.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect provisioning workflow, organization rules, configuration recorders and baselines. This instead addresses a different case: AWS Organizations account vending creates accounts without Config rules checking EBS encryption and S3 protection. For the stated situation (A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages.), the better investigation is: Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. The deciding distinction is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.

B:

Review duplicated templates, parameter contracts, dependencies and current deviations. This instead addresses a different case: Five application teams copy and edit the same network subnet definitions in separate CloudFormation stacks, causing inconsistent security controls. For the stated situation (A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages.), the better investigation is: Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. The deciding distinction is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.

C:

Inspect the proposed change set, resource identifiers, retention policy and data ownership. This instead addresses a different case: A template refactor changes an S3 bucket logical ID, risking replacement of a bucket containing business records. For the stated situation (A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages.), the better investigation is: Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. The deciding distinction is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.

Question 80

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Roll back or correct the transaction pattern and add appropriate contention monitoring.
  2. Create selective event patterns matching only approved incident conditions.
  3. Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows.
  4. Trigger processing from verified object-available events with idempotent validation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Create selective event patterns matching only approved incident conditions. Its validation is: A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. The principle is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Roll back or correct the transaction pattern and add appropriate contention monitoring. This instead addresses a different case: A new backend version causes transaction timeouts and rising database deadlocks, while CPU utilization remains moderate. For the stated situation (A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls.), the better engineering action is: Create selective event patterns matching only approved incident conditions. The deciding distinction is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

C:

Subscribe to relevant health events through centralized EventBridge and incident workflows. This instead addresses a different case: An AWS Health event affects a critical enterprise database in an otherwise quiet account, but the team monitors only application CloudWatch alarms. For the stated situation (A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls.), the better engineering action is: Create selective event patterns matching only approved incident conditions. The deciding distinction is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

D:

Trigger processing from verified object-available events with idempotent validation. This instead addresses a different case: An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports. For the stated situation (A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls.), the better engineering action is: Create selective event patterns matching only approved incident conditions. The deciding distinction is: Event routing should filter on relevant sources, detail types and expected event properties.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests