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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 70

Question 690

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Security findings need aggregation, deduplication and accountable response in multi-account environments.
  2. IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.
  3. Attribute-based access can constrain operations to approved resource ownership when tags are trustworthy.
  4. Central security logging depends on correct service delivery permissions for every intended account.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring. Relevant first evidence: Inspect Access Analyzer findings, service last accessed data and CloudTrail usage. The resulting controlled response is: Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security findings need aggregation, deduplication and accountable response in multi-account environments. This instead addresses a different case: A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow. For the stated situation (A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely.), the better principle is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring. The deciding distinction is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

C:

Attribute-based access can constrain operations to approved resource ownership when tags are trustworthy. This instead addresses a different case: A shared ECS deployment role can update any workload in the account despite developers owning separate applications. For the stated situation (A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely.), the better principle is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring. The deciding distinction is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

D:

Central security logging depends on correct service delivery permissions for every intended account. This instead addresses a different case: A central S3 audit bucket receives CloudTrail from most accounts but one member account fails because a KMS policy condition excludes its trail. For the stated situation (A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely.), the better principle is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring. The deciding distinction is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

Question 691

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: An application emits useful latency values inside structured logs but operators need searchable and alarmable measurements without building a bespoke database. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Metric streams support managed delivery of selected CloudWatch metrics to supported downstream paths.
  2. Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues.
  3. Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns.
  4. Distributed tracing requires propagation of trace context and compatible instrumentation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns. Relevant first evidence: Inspect log JSON structure, embedded metric declarations and namespace configuration. The resulting controlled response is: Instrument valid Embedded Metric Format or approved custom metric publication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Metric streams support managed delivery of selected CloudWatch metrics to supported downstream paths. This instead addresses a different case: An enterprise needs near-real-time CloudWatch metric delivery to a central external analytics platform but polling every account exceeds API limits. For the stated situation (An application emits useful latency values inside structured logs but operators need searchable and alarmable measurements without building a bespoke database.), the better principle is: Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns. The deciding distinction is: Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns.

B:

Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues. This instead addresses a different case: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. For the stated situation (An application emits useful latency values inside structured logs but operators need searchable and alarmable measurements without building a bespoke database.), the better principle is: Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns. The deciding distinction is: Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns.

D:

Distributed tracing requires propagation of trace context and compatible instrumentation. This instead addresses a different case: API Gateway, Lambda and downstream services emit logs, but operators cannot correlate one slow customer request across service hops. For the stated situation (An application emits useful latency values inside structured logs but operators need searchable and alarmable measurements without building a bespoke database.), the better principle is: Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns. The deciding distinction is: Application telemetry can publish CloudWatch metrics through structured embedded metric or explicit custom metric patterns.

Question 692

A DevOps team is reviewing: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Choose a supported RDS Multi-AZ configuration with application reconnect logic.
  2. Inspect enabled ALB zones, target distribution, Auto Scaling subnets and capacity reservations.
  3. Use reserved concurrency or queue buffering and controlled backpressure.
  4. Inspect cluster endpoint, reader endpoint, replica topology and connection logic.
  5. Configure applications to use suitable Aurora endpoints and resilient reconnection.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Inspect cluster endpoint, reader endpoint, replica topology and connection logic. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader. The complementary correct action is: Configure applications to use suitable Aurora endpoints and resilient reconnection. Both follow the principle: Client endpoint strategy must match the intended Aurora failover and read routing.

E:

Configure applications to use suitable Aurora endpoints and resilient reconnection. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader. The complementary correct action is: Inspect cluster endpoint, reader endpoint, replica topology and connection logic. Both follow the principle: Client endpoint strategy must match the intended Aurora failover and read routing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Choose a supported RDS Multi-AZ configuration with application reconnect logic. This is suitable for another situation: A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect cluster endpoint, reader endpoint, replica topology and connection logic.) and design change (Configure applications to use suitable Aurora endpoints and resilient reconnection.). These two steps address: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader.

B:

Inspect enabled ALB zones, target distribution, Auto Scaling subnets and capacity reservations. This is suitable for another situation: A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect cluster endpoint, reader endpoint, replica topology and connection logic.) and design change (Configure applications to use suitable Aurora endpoints and resilient reconnection.). These two steps address: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader.

C:

Use reserved concurrency or queue buffering and controlled backpressure. This is suitable for another situation: A public API invokes Lambda and saturates an external payment service when automatic concurrency grows after a marketing event. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect cluster endpoint, reader endpoint, replica topology and connection logic.) and design change (Configure applications to use suitable Aurora endpoints and resilient reconnection.). These two steps address: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader.

Question 693

A DevOps team is reviewing: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.
  2. Enforce default EBS encryption and approved KMS use for restore workflows.
  3. Inspect role tags, ECS resource tags, aws:PrincipalTag conditions and tag mutation rights.
  4. Add key deletion approval and dependency verification safeguards to cleanup automation.
  5. Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Enforce default EBS encryption and approved KMS use for restore workflows. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. The complementary correct action is: Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys. Both follow the principle: Encryption standards should apply to restored volumes and associated snapshot workflows.

E:

Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. The complementary correct action is: Enforce default EBS encryption and approved KMS use for restore workflows. Both follow the principle: Encryption standards should apply to restored volumes and associated snapshot workflows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. This is suitable for another situation: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.) and design change (Enforce default EBS encryption and approved KMS use for restore workflows.). These two steps address: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption.

C:

Inspect role tags, ECS resource tags, aws:PrincipalTag conditions and tag mutation rights. This is suitable for another situation: A shared ECS deployment role can update any workload in the account despite developers owning separate applications. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.) and design change (Enforce default EBS encryption and approved KMS use for restore workflows.). These two steps address: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption.

D:

Add key deletion approval and dependency verification safeguards to cleanup automation. This is suitable for another situation: An automated cleanup tool schedules deletion of a KMS key that encrypts backups needed to satisfy long retention. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.) and design change (Enforce default EBS encryption and approved KMS use for restore workflows.). These two steps address: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption.

Question 694

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A Lambda function update introduces intermittent errors that appear only under a small share of real requests. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A canary failure restores the alias to the last healthy function version.
  2. The corrected ApplicationStart hook exits successfully and target health becomes normal.
  3. Peak deployment traffic stays within database connection limits with recoverable rollback.
  4. An unrelated change does not deploy billing, while a relevant shared component still triggers required tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A canary failure restores the alias to the last healthy function version. The approved action is: Shift an approved percentage of alias traffic to the new function version and monitor alarms. The risk principle is: Gradual Lambda routing enables bounded exposure and CloudWatch-driven rollback.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The corrected ApplicationStart hook exits successfully and target health becomes normal. This instead addresses a different case: A CodeDeploy in-place EC2 release fails during ApplicationStart, but the team incorrectly treats the issue as an Auto Scaling failure. For the stated situation (A Lambda function update introduces intermittent errors that appear only under a small share of real requests.), the better verification is: A canary failure restores the alias to the last healthy function version. The deciding distinction is: Gradual Lambda routing enables bounded exposure and CloudWatch-driven rollback.

C:

Peak deployment traffic stays within database connection limits with recoverable rollback. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment immediately starts hundreds of Lambda workers, exhausting relational database connections and making rollback harder. For the stated situation (A Lambda function update introduces intermittent errors that appear only under a small share of real requests.), the better verification is: A canary failure restores the alias to the last healthy function version. The deciding distinction is: Gradual Lambda routing enables bounded exposure and CloudWatch-driven rollback.

D:

An unrelated change does not deploy billing, while a relevant shared component still triggers required tests. This instead addresses a different case: A monorepo contains infrastructure, mobile and billing folders, but every README edit launches all three expensive production pipelines. For the stated situation (A Lambda function update introduces intermittent errors that appear only under a small share of real requests.), the better verification is: A canary failure restores the alias to the last healthy function version. The deciding distinction is: Gradual Lambda routing enables bounded exposure and CloudWatch-driven rollback.

Question 695

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. The build resolves approved versions and rejects an unauthorized dependency source.
  2. A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response.
  3. A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can.
  4. A destructive replacement requires explicit approval and safe migration planning.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can. The approved action is: Trigger CodeBuild tests on pull requests and make their status mandatory for merge. The risk principle is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The build resolves approved versions and rejects an unauthorized dependency source. This instead addresses a different case: A CodeBuild project downloads packages from unrestricted public registries even though an internal vetted package repository is required. For the stated situation (Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source.), the better verification is: A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can. The deciding distinction is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.

B:

A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response. This instead addresses a different case: After a deployment, the homepage returns HTTP 200 while checkout is broken for authenticated customers. For the stated situation (Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source.), the better verification is: A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can. The deciding distinction is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.

D:

A destructive replacement requires explicit approval and safe migration planning. This instead addresses a different case: A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor. For the stated situation (Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source.), the better verification is: A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can. The deciding distinction is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.

Question 696

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.
  2. Recovery copies should be protected against compromised primary account identities.
  3. Multi-AZ service design needs healthy targets and sufficient capacity in independent zones.
  4. Highly available applications should avoid unreplicated session state tied to an individual node.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies. Relevant first evidence: Inspect secret replication, KMS key design, role access and DNS/failover flows. The resulting controlled response is: Provision approved regional secrets and key access before declaring standby ready.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Recovery copies should be protected against compromised primary account identities. This instead addresses a different case: Ransomware could delete backups because production administrators have the same permissions on the only backup vault. For the stated situation (A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region.), the better principle is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

C:

Multi-AZ service design needs healthy targets and sufficient capacity in independent zones. This instead addresses a different case: A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage. For the stated situation (A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region.), the better principle is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

D:

Highly available applications should avoid unreplicated session state tied to an individual node. This instead addresses a different case: Two application instances run in distinct AZs but all sessions are stored on one instance and users lose carts during target failures. For the stated situation (A warm standby web tier exists in a second Region but depends on secrets and KMS keys that are only accessible in the primary Region.), the better principle is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies. The deciding distinction is: Cross-Region resilience must include regional identity, secret and cryptographic dependencies.

Question 697

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A long-running task avoids unintended simultaneous processing and duplicates are safe.
  2. A drill restores an entire order and payment flow without missing or duplicated settlement.
  3. A restore drill measures recovered transaction currency within five minutes.
  4. A deletion attempt cannot destroy protected objects before approved retention expiry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A drill restores an entire order and payment flow without missing or duplicated settlement. The approved action is: Create an application-aware recovery sequence with replay safety and reconciled checkpoints. The risk principle is: Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A long-running task avoids unintended simultaneous processing and duplicates are safe. This instead addresses a different case: Message consumers regularly process tasks longer than the SQS visibility timeout, causing duplicate deliveries while the first worker is active. For the stated situation (A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records.), the better verification is: A drill restores an entire order and payment flow without missing or duplicated settlement. The deciding distinction is: Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state.

C:

A restore drill measures recovered transaction currency within five minutes. This instead addresses a different case: A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily. For the stated situation (A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records.), the better verification is: A drill restores an entire order and payment flow without missing or duplicated settlement. The deciding distinction is: Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state.

D:

A deletion attempt cannot destroy protected objects before approved retention expiry. This instead addresses a different case: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. For the stated situation (A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records.), the better verification is: A drill restores an entire order and payment flow without missing or duplicated settlement. The deciding distinction is: Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state.

Question 698

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Require approved permissions boundaries for created roles and deny removal or bypass.
  2. Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout.
  3. Implement a controlled short-lived privileged role assumption with audit and review.
  4. Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins. Its validation is: A long approval wait does not cause the later deployment to use expired credentials. The principle is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Require approved permissions boundaries for created roles and deny removal or bypass. This instead addresses a different case: A platform group allows developers to create application IAM roles, but one developer creates a new role granting AdministratorAccess. For the stated situation (A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails.), the better engineering action is: Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins. The deciding distinction is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

B:

Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout. This instead addresses a different case: A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely. For the stated situation (A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails.), the better engineering action is: Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins. The deciding distinction is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

C:

Implement a controlled short-lived privileged role assumption with audit and review. This instead addresses a different case: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. For the stated situation (A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails.), the better engineering action is: Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins. The deciding distinction is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

Question 699

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: Security investigators cannot reconstruct a suspected data exfiltration path because VPC Flow Logs were never enabled for regulated subnets. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Enable appropriately scoped VPC Flow Logs to a secure central destination.
  2. Enable supported AWS X-Ray tracing or OpenTelemetry tracing and propagate context.
  3. Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate.
  4. Set approved bucket access and logging settings without broad public permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Enable appropriately scoped VPC Flow Logs to a secure central destination. Its validation is: A test network flow is represented in accessible records with relevant interface information. The principle is: Network flow evidence must be collected at relevant scope with protected destination and retention.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Enable supported AWS X-Ray tracing or OpenTelemetry tracing and propagate context. This instead addresses a different case: API Gateway, Lambda and downstream services emit logs, but operators cannot correlate one slow customer request across service hops. For the stated situation (Security investigators cannot reconstruct a suspected data exfiltration path because VPC Flow Logs were never enabled for regulated subnets.), the better engineering action is: Enable appropriately scoped VPC Flow Logs to a secure central destination. The deciding distinction is: Network flow evidence must be collected at relevant scope with protected destination and retention.

C:

Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate. This instead addresses a different case: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. For the stated situation (Security investigators cannot reconstruct a suspected data exfiltration path because VPC Flow Logs were never enabled for regulated subnets.), the better engineering action is: Enable appropriately scoped VPC Flow Logs to a secure central destination. The deciding distinction is: Network flow evidence must be collected at relevant scope with protected destination and retention.

D:

Set approved bucket access and logging settings without broad public permissions. This instead addresses a different case: An ALB intermittently rejects requests, but access logs are absent because the configured S3 bucket policy denies delivery. For the stated situation (Security investigators cannot reconstruct a suspected data exfiltration path because VPC Flow Logs were never enabled for regulated subnets.), the better engineering action is: Enable appropriately scoped VPC Flow Logs to a secure central destination. The deciding distinction is: Network flow evidence must be collected at relevant scope with protected destination and retention.

Question 700

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity.
  2. Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.
  3. Queue consumer visibility and processing design must account for task duration and idempotency.
  4. Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior. Relevant first evidence: Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. The resulting controlled response is: Configure suitable warmup and scaling policies so boot activity is not misread as demand.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity. This instead addresses a different case: A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot. For the stated situation (An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic.), the better principle is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior. The deciding distinction is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.

C:

Queue consumer visibility and processing design must account for task duration and idempotency. This instead addresses a different case: Message consumers regularly process tasks longer than the SQS visibility timeout, causing duplicate deliveries while the first worker is active. For the stated situation (An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic.), the better principle is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior. The deciding distinction is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.

D:

Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot. This instead addresses a different case: A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions. For the stated situation (An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic.), the better principle is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior. The deciding distinction is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests