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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 42

Question 410

Before changing production, engineers find: An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends.
  2. Inspect Lambda concurrent executions, throttles, payment API quotas and latency.
  3. Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention.
  4. Inspect partition key distribution, throttled requests and access patterns.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. The governing principle is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior. The next controlled engineering decision is: Configure suitable warmup and scaling policies so boot activity is not misread as demand.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect Lambda concurrent executions, throttles, payment API quotas and latency. This instead addresses a different case: A public API invokes Lambda and saturates an external payment service when automatic concurrency grows after a marketing event. For the stated situation (An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic.), the better investigation is: Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. The deciding distinction is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.

C:

Inspect bucket versioning, Object Lock governance or compliance mode, policies and retention. This instead addresses a different case: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. For the stated situation (An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic.), the better investigation is: Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. The deciding distinction is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.

D:

Inspect partition key distribution, throttled requests and access patterns. This instead addresses a different case: A DynamoDB table has substantial unused provisioned capacity but requests to one partition key still throttle under burst load. For the stated situation (An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic.), the better investigation is: Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. The deciding distinction is: Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.

Question 411

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A Kubernetes horizontal pod autoscaler is configured but never scales pods because its custom metric adapter is missing. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A representative producer load avoids persistent hot-shard throttling.
  2. A simulated primary origin fault serves approved content from the fallback source.
  3. A controlled load causes expected pod count changes with healthy readiness.
  4. A long-running task avoids unintended simultaneous processing and duplicates are safe.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A controlled load causes expected pod count changes with healthy readiness. The approved action is: Install and configure supported metrics collection and reasonable HPA thresholds. The risk principle is: Autoscaling depends on valid observable metrics and resource limits as well as policy objects.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A representative producer load avoids persistent hot-shard throttling. This instead addresses a different case: A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot. For the stated situation (A Kubernetes horizontal pod autoscaler is configured but never scales pods because its custom metric adapter is missing.), the better verification is: A controlled load causes expected pod count changes with healthy readiness. The deciding distinction is: Autoscaling depends on valid observable metrics and resource limits as well as policy objects.

B:

A simulated primary origin fault serves approved content from the fallback source. This instead addresses a different case: A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket. For the stated situation (A Kubernetes horizontal pod autoscaler is configured but never scales pods because its custom metric adapter is missing.), the better verification is: A controlled load causes expected pod count changes with healthy readiness. The deciding distinction is: Autoscaling depends on valid observable metrics and resource limits as well as policy objects.

D:

A long-running task avoids unintended simultaneous processing and duplicates are safe. This instead addresses a different case: Message consumers regularly process tasks longer than the SQS visibility timeout, causing duplicate deliveries while the first worker is active. For the stated situation (A Kubernetes horizontal pod autoscaler is configured but never scales pods because its custom metric adapter is missing.), the better verification is: A controlled load causes expected pod count changes with healthy readiness. The deciding distinction is: Autoscaling depends on valid observable metrics and resource limits as well as policy objects.

Question 412

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. Permitted connection and return traffic succeed while prohibited access is denied.
  2. A controlled management event from the affected account arrives in the archive.
  3. A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence.
  4. A known historical AssumeRole event can be retrieved with caller and time.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence. The approved action is: Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. The risk principle is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Permitted connection and return traffic succeed while prohibited access is denied. This instead addresses a different case: A service needs stateful application access, but network engineers rely on one stateless NACL inbound allow rule and response traffic is blocked. For the stated situation (An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.), the better verification is: A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence. The deciding distinction is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

B:

A controlled management event from the affected account arrives in the archive. This instead addresses a different case: A central S3 audit bucket receives CloudTrail from most accounts but one member account fails because a KMS policy condition excludes its trail. For the stated situation (An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.), the better verification is: A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence. The deciding distinction is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

D:

A known historical AssumeRole event can be retrieved with caller and time. This instead addresses a different case: An incident responder needs to investigate unusual role assumptions across accounts over months, but only recent management events are readily accessible. For the stated situation (An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role.), the better verification is: A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence. The deciding distinction is: Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.

Question 413

An engineering review identifies: A secondary-region service is healthy but Route 53 sends users to a failed primary endpoint because its failover record has no meaningful health check. Which shortcut is MOST unsafe for this exact condition?

  1. Assume daily snapshots alone cause immediate automatic primary failover.
  2. Treat multiple CloudFront edge locations as proof that one failed origin is redundant.
  3. Use weighted DNS records without health evaluation and call it guaranteed recovery.
  4. Set visibility timeout shorter than known task runtime to increase throughput.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use weighted DNS records without health evaluation and call it guaranteed recovery. The case is: A secondary-region service is healthy but Route 53 sends users to a failed primary endpoint because its failover record has no meaningful health check. A safer engineering response is: Configure failover routing records with valid health checks and appropriate backup endpoint. The deciding principle is: DNS failover needs accurate health evaluation and correctly associated routing records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assume daily snapshots alone cause immediate automatic primary failover. This instead addresses a different case: A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration. For the stated situation (A secondary-region service is healthy but Route 53 sends users to a failed primary endpoint because its failover record has no meaningful health check.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Use weighted DNS records without health evaluation and call it guaranteed recovery. The deciding distinction is: DNS failover needs accurate health evaluation and correctly associated routing records.

B:

Treat multiple CloudFront edge locations as proof that one failed origin is redundant. This instead addresses a different case: A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket. For the stated situation (A secondary-region service is healthy but Route 53 sends users to a failed primary endpoint because its failover record has no meaningful health check.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Use weighted DNS records without health evaluation and call it guaranteed recovery. The deciding distinction is: DNS failover needs accurate health evaluation and correctly associated routing records.

D:

Set visibility timeout shorter than known task runtime to increase throughput. This instead addresses a different case: Message consumers regularly process tasks longer than the SQS visibility timeout, causing duplicate deliveries while the first worker is active. For the stated situation (A secondary-region service is healthy but Route 53 sends users to a failed primary endpoint because its failover record has no meaningful health check.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Use weighted DNS records without health evaluation and call it guaranteed recovery. The deciding distinction is: DNS failover needs accurate health evaluation and correctly associated routing records.

Question 414

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.
  2. Hybrid systems can be managed through supported SSM activation and scoped policies where reachable.
  3. Critical stateful stacks need deletion safeguards independent of ordinary deployment success.
  4. Reusable code should encode secure defaults and controlled override rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced. Relevant first evidence: Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. The resulting controlled response is: Use controlled resource import and reconcile drift while preserving the live queue.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Hybrid systems can be managed through supported SSM activation and scoped policies where reachable. This instead addresses a different case: A datacenter fleet and EC2 instances need the same audited patch procedure, but offline servers are not in Systems Manager inventory. For the stated situation (A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages.), the better principle is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced. The deciding distinction is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.

C:

Critical stateful stacks need deletion safeguards independent of ordinary deployment success. This instead addresses a different case: A production database is managed in a stack whose deletion could be triggered by an overly broad cleanup pipeline. For the stated situation (A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages.), the better principle is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced. The deciding distinction is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.

D:

Reusable code should encode secure defaults and controlled override rules. This instead addresses a different case: A reusable AWS CDK construct creates S3 buckets with public access enabled unless individual teams remember to override the setting. For the stated situation (A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages.), the better principle is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced. The deciding distinction is: Existing resources should be imported into IaC when supported instead of blindly replaced.

Question 415

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: After a deployment, the homepage returns HTTP 200 while checkout is broken for authenticated customers. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. One image digest deploys successfully in both environments with distinct scoped secrets.
  2. A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can.
  3. A failing assertion marks the build failed and its report identifies the failed test.
  4. A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response. The approved action is: Add controlled authenticated canary tests for critical paths and fail deployment on business failures. The risk principle is: End-to-end application acceptance should validate critical customer transactions and dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

One image digest deploys successfully in both environments with distinct scoped secrets. This instead addresses a different case: A containerized service works in staging but production fails because a required secret name was hardcoded to the staging account. For the stated situation (After a deployment, the homepage returns HTTP 200 while checkout is broken for authenticated customers.), the better verification is: A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response. The deciding distinction is: End-to-end application acceptance should validate critical customer transactions and dependencies.

B:

A failing pull request cannot merge, while a passing reviewed change can. This instead addresses a different case: Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source. For the stated situation (After a deployment, the homepage returns HTTP 200 while checkout is broken for authenticated customers.), the better verification is: A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response. The deciding distinction is: End-to-end application acceptance should validate critical customer transactions and dependencies.

C:

A failing assertion marks the build failed and its report identifies the failed test. This instead addresses a different case: CodeBuild exits zero after a testing script prints failing assertions, and no test result report is retained. For the stated situation (After a deployment, the homepage returns HTTP 200 while checkout is broken for authenticated customers.), the better verification is: A broken checkout fails release validation despite a healthy root URL response. The deciding distinction is: End-to-end application acceptance should validate critical customer transactions and dependencies.

Question 416

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. An unauthorized bundle overwrite cannot silently change the approved production release.
  2. A new task transitions healthy and serves requests while a genuinely unready task is withheld.
  3. A rollback returns traffic to the exact pre-release immutable version.
  4. Peak deployment traffic stays within database connection limits with recoverable rollback.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A new task transitions healthy and serves requests while a genuinely unready task is withheld. The approved action is: Align target-group checks with a reliable application readiness endpoint and reachable port. The risk principle is: Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unauthorized bundle overwrite cannot silently change the approved production release. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment retrieves ZIP bundles from a common S3 prefix where operators can replace a file without updating the approved release record. For the stated situation (An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path.), the better verification is: A new task transitions healthy and serves requests while a genuinely unready task is withheld. The deciding distinction is: Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior.

C:

A rollback returns traffic to the exact pre-release immutable version. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records. For the stated situation (An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path.), the better verification is: A new task transitions healthy and serves requests while a genuinely unready task is withheld. The deciding distinction is: Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior.

D:

Peak deployment traffic stays within database connection limits with recoverable rollback. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment immediately starts hundreds of Lambda workers, exhausting relational database connections and making rollback harder. For the stated situation (An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path.), the better verification is: A new task transitions healthy and serves requests while a genuinely unready task is withheld. The deciding distinction is: Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior.

Question 417

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Enable suitable access analysis and correct unapproved external principals.
  2. Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed.
  3. Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines.
  4. Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout. Its validation is: Application functions pass and unused high-risk privileges are no longer granted. The principle is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable suitable access analysis and correct unapproved external principals. This instead addresses a different case: An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust. For the stated situation (A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely.), the better engineering action is: Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout. The deciding distinction is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

B:

Deliver CloudTrail logs to a separate protected account with controlled immutable retention where needed. This instead addresses a different case: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. For the stated situation (A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely.), the better engineering action is: Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout. The deciding distinction is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

C:

Enable appropriate continuous scanning and approved image remediation pipelines. This instead addresses a different case: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually. For the stated situation (A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely.), the better engineering action is: Review actual necessary actions and tighten policy through a monitored rollout. The deciding distinction is: IAM activity and access analysis can support least-privilege refinement under monitoring.

Question 418

Before changing production, engineers find: A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect AWS Health event source, EventBridge rules, targets and account aggregation.
  2. Inspect read/write capacity utilization, throttle metrics and scaling settings.
  3. Review alarm dependencies, parent symptoms and notification routing.
  4. Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect read/write capacity utilization, throttle metrics and scaling settings. The governing principle is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness. The next controlled engineering decision is: Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect AWS Health event source, EventBridge rules, targets and account aggregation. This instead addresses a different case: A regional AWS Health event indicates maintenance of a service used by five accounts, but no on-call team receives it. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better investigation is: Inspect read/write capacity utilization, throttle metrics and scaling settings. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

C:

Review alarm dependencies, parent symptoms and notification routing. This instead addresses a different case: Five related alarms page the same team simultaneously for a single database outage, overwhelming responders. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better investigation is: Inspect read/write capacity utilization, throttle metrics and scaling settings. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

D:

Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations. This instead addresses a different case: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better investigation is: Inspect read/write capacity utilization, throttle metrics and scaling settings. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

Question 419

Before changing production, engineers find: A custom TLS termination service stores its private key in an unencrypted public container image layer. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect Access Analyzer findings, service last accessed data and CloudTrail usage.
  2. Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.
  3. Review VPC route tables, firewall endpoint placement and egress flow records.
  4. Inspect image layers, secret storage, runtime mounts and certificate rotation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect image layers, secret storage, runtime mounts and certificate rotation. The governing principle is: Private TLS key material should be protected and excluded from build artifacts. The next controlled engineering decision is: Use ACM or a secure secret/key service appropriate to the termination model.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Access Analyzer findings, service last accessed data and CloudTrail usage. This instead addresses a different case: A workload role has accumulated broad services permissions over years, and governance wants evidence to narrow them safely. For the stated situation (A custom TLS termination service stores its private key in an unencrypted public container image layer.), the better investigation is: Inspect image layers, secret storage, runtime mounts and certificate rotation. The deciding distinction is: Private TLS key material should be protected and excluded from build artifacts.

B:

Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys. This instead addresses a different case: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. For the stated situation (A custom TLS termination service stores its private key in an unencrypted public container image layer.), the better investigation is: Inspect image layers, secret storage, runtime mounts and certificate rotation. The deciding distinction is: Private TLS key material should be protected and excluded from build artifacts.

C:

Review VPC route tables, firewall endpoint placement and egress flow records. This instead addresses a different case: Security policy requires outbound traffic inspection, but private subnets route directly through NAT without the designated inspection path. For the stated situation (A custom TLS termination service stores its private key in an unencrypted public container image layer.), the better investigation is: Inspect image layers, secret storage, runtime mounts and certificate rotation. The deciding distinction is: Private TLS key material should be protected and excluded from build artifacts.

Question 420

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior.
  2. Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries.
  3. Serverless rollbacks should use immutable published versions and controlled alias revisions.
  4. Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries. Relevant first evidence: Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions. The resulting controlled response is: Constrain deployment roles and policy conditions to approved accounts and Regions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Task deployment health checks must reflect the live application's endpoint and readiness behavior. This instead addresses a different case: An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path. For the stated situation (A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction.), the better principle is: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries. The deciding distinction is: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries.

C:

Serverless rollbacks should use immutable published versions and controlled alias revisions. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records. For the stated situation (A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction.), the better principle is: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries. The deciding distinction is: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries.

D:

Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout. This instead addresses a different case: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. For the stated situation (A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction.), the better principle is: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries. The deciding distinction is: Promotion logic must enforce authorized deployment account and Region boundaries.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests