cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam - Verified By Experts
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle
$14.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

$74.99
$89.98
  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 08, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Video Lectures
 
$89.98
$74.99
accept 62 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Training Products Individually
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium File
Premium File 480 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Video Training Course
Training Course 242 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 38

Question 370

Before changing production, engineers find: A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Review generated CloudFormation change sets, deletion or replacement actions and approval policy.
  2. Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows.
  3. Inspect shell error handling, test process exit codes, buildspec commands and report-group output.
  4. Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Review generated CloudFormation change sets, deletion or replacement actions and approval policy. The governing principle is: Infrastructure changes should be previewed and checked for destructive resource effects. The next controlled engineering decision is: Create and inspect a change set before controlled production execution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. For the stated situation (A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor.), the better investigation is: Review generated CloudFormation change sets, deletion or replacement actions and approval policy. The deciding distinction is: Infrastructure changes should be previewed and checked for destructive resource effects.

C:

Inspect shell error handling, test process exit codes, buildspec commands and report-group output. This instead addresses a different case: CodeBuild exits zero after a testing script prints failing assertions, and no test result report is retained. For the stated situation (A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor.), the better investigation is: Review generated CloudFormation change sets, deletion or replacement actions and approval policy. The deciding distinction is: Infrastructure changes should be previewed and checked for destructive resource effects.

D:

Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements. This instead addresses a different case: Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source. For the stated situation (A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor.), the better investigation is: Review generated CloudFormation change sets, deletion or replacement actions and approval policy. The deciding distinction is: Infrastructure changes should be previewed and checked for destructive resource effects.

Question 371

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A controlled rejected connection is traceable to source and destination metadata.
  2. A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain.
  3. A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role.
  4. One application team can deploy its own service and is denied another team's service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain. The approved action is: Move workforce access to federated IAM Identity Center permission sets with scoped sessions. The risk principle is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controlled rejected connection is traceable to source and destination metadata. This instead addresses a different case: Security detects unauthorized port scans but cannot determine which source attempted connections to a sensitive subnet. For the stated situation (Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination.), the better verification is: A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain. The deciding distinction is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

C:

A developer can create an allowed app role but cannot create or use an unrestricted admin role. This instead addresses a different case: A platform group allows developers to create application IAM roles, but one developer creates a new role granting AdministratorAccess. For the stated situation (Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination.), the better verification is: A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain. The deciding distinction is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

D:

One application team can deploy its own service and is denied another team's service. This instead addresses a different case: A shared ECS deployment role can update any workload in the account despite developers owning separate applications. For the stated situation (Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination.), the better verification is: A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain. The deciding distinction is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

Question 372

A DevOps team is reviewing: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Use valid renewal procedures and monitored replacement for imported certificates.
  2. Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners.
  3. Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts.
  4. Inspect build logs, artifact S3 bucket, KMS key policy and CodeBuild role permissions.
  5. Use a controlled approved remediation action or rollback of the unauthorized rule.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use valid renewal procedures and monitored replacement for imported certificates. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored. The complementary correct action is: Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners. Both follow the principle: Certificate lifecycle automation must match certificate origin and supported renewal method.

B:

Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored. The complementary correct action is: Use valid renewal procedures and monitored replacement for imported certificates. Both follow the principle: Certificate lifecycle automation must match certificate origin and supported renewal method.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Inspect EventBridge event pattern, action-induced events and invocation counts. This is suitable for another situation: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners.) and design change (Use valid renewal procedures and monitored replacement for imported certificates.). These two steps address: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored.

D:

Inspect build logs, artifact S3 bucket, KMS key policy and CodeBuild role permissions. This is suitable for another situation: A pipeline fails at CodeBuild DOWNLOAD_SOURCE with AccessDenied after a KMS key policy change. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners.) and design change (Use valid renewal procedures and monitored replacement for imported certificates.). These two steps address: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored.

E:

Use a controlled approved remediation action or rollback of the unauthorized rule. This is suitable for another situation: Operations edits a firewall security group to add temporary unrestricted access but forgets to remove it after an emergency. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect ACM certificate status, DNS validation, import provenance and attached listeners.) and design change (Use valid renewal procedures and monitored replacement for imported certificates.). These two steps address: An ACM-managed certificate is nearing expiration, but an application relies on manually imported certificates whose renewal notifications are ignored.

Question 373

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Choose an appropriate backup/replication design that meets approved loss tolerance.
  2. Provision and test a suitably sized standby baseline with controlled scale-up on failover.
  3. Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies.
  4. Redesign a skewed access key or shard high-volume writes while maintaining correct queries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Choose an appropriate backup/replication design that meets approved loss tolerance. Its validation is: A restore drill measures recovered transaction currency within five minutes. The principle is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Provision and test a suitably sized standby baseline with controlled scale-up on failover. This instead addresses a different case: A standby Region has copied AMIs but no provisioned database capacity and cannot accept traffic for hours. For the stated situation (A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily.), the better engineering action is: Choose an appropriate backup/replication design that meets approved loss tolerance. The deciding distinction is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.

C:

Apply suitable S3 Object Lock and isolated permissions for protected recovery copies. This instead addresses a different case: A regulated dataset is protected by S3 copies, but the only operator can permanently delete versions during an incident. For the stated situation (A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily.), the better engineering action is: Choose an appropriate backup/replication design that meets approved loss tolerance. The deciding distinction is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.

D:

Redesign a skewed access key or shard high-volume writes while maintaining correct queries. This instead addresses a different case: A DynamoDB table has substantial unused provisioned capacity but requests to one partition key still throttle under burst load. For the stated situation (A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily.), the better engineering action is: Choose an appropriate backup/replication design that meets approved loss tolerance. The deciding distinction is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.

Question 374

Before changing production, engineers find: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact.
  2. Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.
  3. Inspect detector enablement, Security Hub integration, EventBridge rules and delegated admin.
  4. Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. The governing principle is: Managed public certificate renewal depends on sustained validation prerequisites. The next controlled engineering decision is: Restore valid DNS validation and monitor renewal before expiration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact. This instead addresses a different case: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing. For the stated situation (A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted.), the better investigation is: Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. The deciding distinction is: Managed public certificate renewal depends on sustained validation prerequisites.

C:

Inspect detector enablement, Security Hub integration, EventBridge rules and delegated admin. This instead addresses a different case: A suspicious EC2 credential event generates a GuardDuty finding but never reaches the central analyst workflow. For the stated situation (A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted.), the better investigation is: Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. The deciding distinction is: Managed public certificate renewal depends on sustained validation prerequisites.

D:

Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys. This instead addresses a different case: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. For the stated situation (A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted.), the better investigation is: Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. The deciding distinction is: Managed public certificate renewal depends on sustained validation prerequisites.

Question 375

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A burst of HTTP 500s appears in logs, but operators query raw text and cannot correlate failures by deployment revision. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Synthetic monitoring should exercise user-important paths with appropriate credentials and certificate checks.
  2. Ephemeral workloads need centralized logs and stable metadata for post-failure analysis.
  3. Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions.
  4. Trace spans can isolate latency contributions across distributed calls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions. Relevant first evidence: Inspect fields for status code, revision, trace ID and service name. The resulting controlled response is: Query structured log events grouped by revision and error pattern using Logs Insights.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Synthetic monitoring should exercise user-important paths with appropriate credentials and certificate checks. This instead addresses a different case: An external application returns 200 for its home page even as the login endpoint has expired certificates and cannot authenticate users. For the stated situation (A burst of HTTP 500s appears in logs, but operators query raw text and cannot correlate failures by deployment revision.), the better principle is: Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions. The deciding distinction is: Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions.

B:

Ephemeral workloads need centralized logs and stable metadata for post-failure analysis. This instead addresses a different case: EKS pods restart after a rollout, and their transient filesystem logs disappear before investigators collect them. For the stated situation (A burst of HTTP 500s appears in logs, but operators query raw text and cannot correlate failures by deployment revision.), the better principle is: Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions. The deciding distinction is: Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions.

D:

Trace spans can isolate latency contributions across distributed calls. This instead addresses a different case: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency. For the stated situation (A burst of HTTP 500s appears in logs, but operators query raw text and cannot correlate failures by deployment revision.), the better principle is: Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions. The deciding distinction is: Structured logs and Logs Insights queries enable fast grouping by useful dimensions.

Question 376

Before changing production, engineers find: A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory.
  2. Inspect provisioning workflow, organization rules, configuration recorders and baselines.
  3. Review Organizations integration, delegated administrator, enabled standards and aggregation regions.
  4. Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. The governing principle is: Machine-to-machine multi-account access should use STS role assumption with scoped trust. The next controlled engineering decision is: Replace persistent shared keys with approved cross-account roles and short-lived credentials.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect provisioning workflow, organization rules, configuration recorders and baselines. This instead addresses a different case: AWS Organizations account vending creates accounts without Config rules checking EBS encryption and S3 protection. For the stated situation (A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets.), the better investigation is: Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. The deciding distinction is: Machine-to-machine multi-account access should use STS role assumption with scoped trust.

C:

Review Organizations integration, delegated administrator, enabled standards and aggregation regions. This instead addresses a different case: Security Hub findings remain isolated in 40 member accounts and security operations cannot reliably track enterprise-wide exposure. For the stated situation (A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets.), the better investigation is: Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. The deciding distinction is: Machine-to-machine multi-account access should use STS role assumption with scoped trust.

D:

Check CloudFormation import support, logical IDs, actual configuration and queue identifiers. This instead addresses a different case: A production queue built manually is now required in a managed CloudFormation stack, but engineers fear recreating it will lose messages. For the stated situation (A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets.), the better investigation is: Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. The deciding distinction is: Machine-to-machine multi-account access should use STS role assumption with scoped trust.

Question 377

Before changing production, engineers find: A production housekeeping Lambda is triggered by a local server cron job and silently stops after that server is retired. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory.
  2. Inspect managed instance registration, SSM Inventory collection and software reports.
  3. Review agent connectivity, hybrid activation, licensing requirements and node enrollment.
  4. Inspect execution history, schedule ownership, IAM rights and failure destinations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect execution history, schedule ownership, IAM rights and failure destinations. The governing principle is: Scheduled cloud jobs should use managed scheduling with monitoring and defined retry handling. The next controlled engineering decision is: Use EventBridge Scheduler or approved managed scheduling with alerting and retry policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. This instead addresses a different case: A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets. For the stated situation (A production housekeeping Lambda is triggered by a local server cron job and silently stops after that server is retired.), the better investigation is: Inspect execution history, schedule ownership, IAM rights and failure destinations. The deciding distinction is: Scheduled cloud jobs should use managed scheduling with monitoring and defined retry handling.

B:

Inspect managed instance registration, SSM Inventory collection and software reports. This instead addresses a different case: Operations estimates patch compliance from EC2 tags but has no verified installed software inventory. For the stated situation (A production housekeeping Lambda is triggered by a local server cron job and silently stops after that server is retired.), the better investigation is: Inspect execution history, schedule ownership, IAM rights and failure destinations. The deciding distinction is: Scheduled cloud jobs should use managed scheduling with monitoring and defined retry handling.

C:

Review agent connectivity, hybrid activation, licensing requirements and node enrollment. This instead addresses a different case: A datacenter fleet and EC2 instances need the same audited patch procedure, but offline servers are not in Systems Manager inventory. For the stated situation (A production housekeeping Lambda is triggered by a local server cron job and silently stops after that server is retired.), the better investigation is: Inspect execution history, schedule ownership, IAM rights and failure destinations. The deciding distinction is: Scheduled cloud jobs should use managed scheduling with monitoring and defined retry handling.

Question 378

Before changing production, engineers find: One order-created event needs to inform billing, fulfillment and analytics independently, but a direct Lambda chain loses downstream events when one service is unavailable. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Review S3 object delivery patterns, EventBridge trigger timing and job prerequisites.
  2. Inspect signatures, event IDs, API Gateway/Lambda handler behavior and job queue writes.
  3. Inspect API Gateway usage-plan or stage throttles, metrics and request IDs.
  4. Review delivery guarantees, subscriptions, DLQs and consumer coupling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Review delivery guarantees, subscriptions, DLQs and consumer coupling. The governing principle is: Fan-out with independent durable subscribers decouples consumer processing and retries. The next controlled engineering decision is: Publish to a suitable topic and distribute through separate durable SQS queues.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review S3 object delivery patterns, EventBridge trigger timing and job prerequisites. This instead addresses a different case: An automation starts on a fixed schedule even though the required S3 data file often arrives late, causing incomplete daily reports. For the stated situation (One order-created event needs to inform billing, fulfillment and analytics independently, but a direct Lambda chain loses downstream events when one service is unavailable.), the better investigation is: Review delivery guarantees, subscriptions, DLQs and consumer coupling. The deciding distinction is: Fan-out with independent durable subscribers decouples consumer processing and retries.

B:

Inspect signatures, event IDs, API Gateway/Lambda handler behavior and job queue writes. This instead addresses a different case: A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs. For the stated situation (One order-created event needs to inform billing, fulfillment and analytics independently, but a direct Lambda chain loses downstream events when one service is unavailable.), the better investigation is: Review delivery guarantees, subscriptions, DLQs and consumer coupling. The deciding distinction is: Fan-out with independent durable subscribers decouples consumer processing and retries.

C:

Inspect API Gateway usage-plan or stage throttles, metrics and request IDs. This instead addresses a different case: A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero. For the stated situation (One order-created event needs to inform billing, fulfillment and analytics independently, but a direct Lambda chain loses downstream events when one service is unavailable.), the better investigation is: Review delivery guarantees, subscriptions, DLQs and consumer coupling. The deciding distinction is: Fan-out with independent durable subscribers decouples consumer processing and retries.

Question 379

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A scheduled Secrets Manager rotation updates a credential, but its consumer application continues using the revoked password and fails authentication. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Containment automation must use precise resource identity, scope and rollback safeguards.
  2. Stream ordering guarantees depend on partition key and consumer processing model.
  3. Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation.
  4. Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation. Relevant first evidence: Inspect rotation function stages, secret version labels and application cache lifecycle. The resulting controlled response is: Correct rotation and refresh behavior with a tested coordinated client retry path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Containment automation must use precise resource identity, scope and rollback safeguards. This instead addresses a different case: An incident automation should isolate one compromised EC2 instance, but its script selects every instance in the same environment tag. For the stated situation (A scheduled Secrets Manager rotation updates a credential, but its consumer application continues using the revoked password and fails authentication.), the better principle is: Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation. The deciding distinction is: Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation.

B:

Stream ordering guarantees depend on partition key and consumer processing model. This instead addresses a different case: A telemetry consumer requires per-device ordering but producers assign random partition keys and observations arrive out of sequence. For the stated situation (A scheduled Secrets Manager rotation updates a credential, but its consumer application continues using the revoked password and fails authentication.), the better principle is: Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation. The deciding distinction is: Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation.

D:

Event-driven remediation needs recursion safeguards, idempotency and selective patterns. This instead addresses a different case: An event rule starts a Lambda that tags an EC2 resource, and the resulting CloudTrail tagging event triggers the same Lambda repeatedly. For the stated situation (A scheduled Secrets Manager rotation updates a credential, but its consumer application continues using the revoked password and fails authentication.), the better principle is: Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation. The deciding distinction is: Credential rotation must coordinate secret state with application connection refresh and validation.

Question 380

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Fix the infrastructure module and enable appropriate Block Public Access plus monitoring.
  2. Use appropriate tag-aware policies with guarded tagging permissions.
  3. Move workforce access to federated IAM Identity Center permission sets with scoped sessions.
  4. Add narrowly scoped cross-account bucket and necessary key grants in both authorization planes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Move workforce access to federated IAM Identity Center permission sets with scoped sessions. Its validation is: A terminated user loses account access and no orphaned long-lived keys remain. The principle is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fix the infrastructure module and enable appropriate Block Public Access plus monitoring. This instead addresses a different case: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. For the stated situation (Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination.), the better engineering action is: Move workforce access to federated IAM Identity Center permission sets with scoped sessions. The deciding distinction is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

B:

Use appropriate tag-aware policies with guarded tagging permissions. This instead addresses a different case: A shared ECS deployment role can update any workload in the account despite developers owning separate applications. For the stated situation (Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination.), the better engineering action is: Move workforce access to federated IAM Identity Center permission sets with scoped sessions. The deciding distinction is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

D:

Add narrowly scoped cross-account bucket and necessary key grants in both authorization planes. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda role has s3:GetObject but gets AccessDenied reading a bucket in another account. For the stated situation (Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination.), the better engineering action is: Move workforce access to federated IAM Identity Center permission sets with scoped sessions. The deciding distinction is: Central federation can simplify attribution, temporary sessions and staff deprovisioning.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests