cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam - Verified By Experts
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle
$14.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

$74.99
$89.98
  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 08, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Video Lectures
 
$89.98
$74.99
accept 62 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Training Products Individually
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium File
Premium File 480 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Video Training Course
Training Course 242 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 29

Question 280

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A company provisions AWS accounts manually and regularly forgets baseline logging and governance settings. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Machine-to-machine multi-account access should use STS role assumption with scoped trust.
  2. Workforce access should be federated and provisioned centrally with time-limited account sessions.
  3. Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process.
  4. Managed multi-account deployment benefits from governed CloudFormation StackSets administration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process. Relevant first evidence: Inspect Control Tower landing zone, Account Factory templates and detective guardrails. The resulting controlled response is: Automate onboarding through approved Account Factory or supported account vending controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Machine-to-machine multi-account access should use STS role assumption with scoped trust. This instead addresses a different case: A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets. For the stated situation (A company provisions AWS accounts manually and regularly forgets baseline logging and governance settings.), the better principle is: Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process. The deciding distinction is: Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process.

B:

Workforce access should be federated and provisioned centrally with time-limited account sessions. This instead addresses a different case: An enterprise manually creates duplicate IAM users in dozens of accounts for employees, creating slow offboarding. For the stated situation (A company provisions AWS accounts manually and regularly forgets baseline logging and governance settings.), the better principle is: Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process. The deciding distinction is: Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process.

D:

Managed multi-account deployment benefits from governed CloudFormation StackSets administration. This instead addresses a different case: A central platform team needs to roll out an approved Config rule to newly joined accounts across multiple Regions without manual role creation each time. For the stated situation (A company provisions AWS accounts manually and regularly forgets baseline logging and governance settings.), the better principle is: Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process. The deciding distinction is: Account vending should create standardized governed accounts through an approved landing-zone process.

Question 281

A DevOps team is reviewing: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators.
  2. Inspect lock files, dependency solver output and artifact digests across runs.
  3. Inspect package manager configuration, external connections and CodeArtifact permissions.
  4. Review AMI build recipe, update schedule, patch evidence and launch template versions.
  5. Use dependency lockfiles and deterministic build inputs with immutable package storage.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect lock files, dependency solver output and artifact digests across runs. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day. The complementary correct action is: Use dependency lockfiles and deterministic build inputs with immutable package storage. Both follow the principle: Reproducible builds require pinned dependencies and verifiable artifact identities.

E:

Use dependency lockfiles and deterministic build inputs with immutable package storage. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day. The complementary correct action is: Inspect lock files, dependency solver output and artifact digests across runs. Both follow the principle: Reproducible builds require pinned dependencies and verifiable artifact identities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. This is suitable for another situation: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect lock files, dependency solver output and artifact digests across runs.) and design change (Use dependency lockfiles and deterministic build inputs with immutable package storage.). These two steps address: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day.

C:

Inspect package manager configuration, external connections and CodeArtifact permissions. This is suitable for another situation: A CodeBuild project downloads packages from unrestricted public registries even though an internal vetted package repository is required. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect lock files, dependency solver output and artifact digests across runs.) and design change (Use dependency lockfiles and deterministic build inputs with immutable package storage.). These two steps address: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day.

D:

Review AMI build recipe, update schedule, patch evidence and launch template versions. This is suitable for another situation: Production EC2 Auto Scaling launches instances from an AMI built manually months earlier with inconsistent patch levels. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect lock files, dependency solver output and artifact digests across runs.) and design change (Use dependency lockfiles and deterministic build inputs with immutable package storage.). These two steps address: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day.

Question 282

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues.
  2. Queue monitoring must track oldest message age and dead-letter handling, not count alone.
  3. Distributed tracing requires propagation of trace context and compatible instrumentation.
  4. Predictable demand can be addressed with scheduled or predictive capacity planning.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues. Relevant first evidence: Inspect instance type support, status-check metrics and automated action requirements. The resulting controlled response is: Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Queue monitoring must track oldest message age and dead-letter handling, not count alone. This instead addresses a different case: A queue's depth remains modest but its oldest message waits 40 minutes because one poison message repeatedly fails processing. For the stated situation (A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain.), the better principle is: Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues. The deciding distinction is: Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues.

C:

Distributed tracing requires propagation of trace context and compatible instrumentation. This instead addresses a different case: API Gateway, Lambda and downstream services emit logs, but operators cannot correlate one slow customer request across service hops. For the stated situation (A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain.), the better principle is: Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues. The deciding distinction is: Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues.

D:

Predictable demand can be addressed with scheduled or predictive capacity planning. This instead addresses a different case: A predictable daily traffic peak starts before the reactive Auto Scaling policy can launch sufficient EC2 instances. For the stated situation (A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain.), the better principle is: Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues. The deciding distinction is: Supported EC2 recovery alarms can automate appropriate recovery responses to infrastructure issues.

Question 283

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals.
  2. Trigger CodeBuild tests on pull requests and make their status mandatory for merge.
  3. Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates.
  4. Record commit metadata and promote images by immutable digest through the release pipeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals. Its validation is: A cohort-specific fault pauses expansion and triggers supported rollback. The principle is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Trigger CodeBuild tests on pull requests and make their status mandatory for merge. This instead addresses a different case: Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better engineering action is: Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

C:

Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates. This instead addresses a different case: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better engineering action is: Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

D:

Record commit metadata and promote images by immutable digest through the release pipeline. This instead addresses a different case: An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better engineering action is: Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

Question 284

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Privileged access should be time bounded, attributable and justified by operational need.
  2. Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
  3. AWS compute workloads should generally use IAM roles and temporary instance profile credentials.
  4. Access to SSE-KMS objects requires suitable S3 and KMS authorization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review. Relevant first evidence: Inspect IAM Access Analyzer findings, bucket policies and approved trust relationships. The resulting controlled response is: Enable suitable access analysis and correct unapproved external principals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Privileged access should be time bounded, attributable and justified by operational need. This instead addresses a different case: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better principle is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.

C:

AWS compute workloads should generally use IAM roles and temporary instance profile credentials. This instead addresses a different case: An EC2 application stores a permanent IAM access key in a local configuration file to upload reports to S3. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better principle is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.

D:

Access to SSE-KMS objects requires suitable S3 and KMS authorization. This instead addresses a different case: An application has s3:GetObject permission but cannot read encrypted objects after a KMS key policy update. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better principle is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.

Question 285

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A production security group unexpectedly allows SSH from the internet, and teams disagree who changed it. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. A deliberate application 500 is distinguishable from an ALB-origin 503 in monitoring.
  2. The exact authorized or unauthorized API caller and action are identified reproducibly.
  3. Capacity is ready before known peaks while unwanted excess capacity is limited.
  4. An injected faulty revision appears as a distinct cluster of 500 errors.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The exact authorized or unauthorized API caller and action are identified reproducibly. The approved action is: Query trusted CloudTrail records and correlate with approved change records. The risk principle is: CloudTrail management events can attribute configuration changes when logged and retained appropriately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A deliberate application 500 is distinguishable from an ALB-origin 503 in monitoring. This instead addresses a different case: An application dashboard reports increased HTTP 5xx errors after release, but it does not distinguish target errors from errors generated by the ALB. For the stated situation (A production security group unexpectedly allows SSH from the internet, and teams disagree who changed it.), the better verification is: The exact authorized or unauthorized API caller and action are identified reproducibly. The deciding distinction is: CloudTrail management events can attribute configuration changes when logged and retained appropriately.

C:

Capacity is ready before known peaks while unwanted excess capacity is limited. This instead addresses a different case: A predictable daily traffic peak starts before the reactive Auto Scaling policy can launch sufficient EC2 instances. For the stated situation (A production security group unexpectedly allows SSH from the internet, and teams disagree who changed it.), the better verification is: The exact authorized or unauthorized API caller and action are identified reproducibly. The deciding distinction is: CloudTrail management events can attribute configuration changes when logged and retained appropriately.

D:

An injected faulty revision appears as a distinct cluster of 500 errors. This instead addresses a different case: A burst of HTTP 500s appears in logs, but operators query raw text and cannot correlate failures by deployment revision. For the stated situation (A production security group unexpectedly allows SSH from the internet, and teams disagree who changed it.), the better verification is: The exact authorized or unauthorized API caller and action are identified reproducibly. The deciding distinction is: CloudTrail management events can attribute configuration changes when logged and retained appropriately.

Question 286

A DevOps team is reviewing: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact.
  2. Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections.
  3. Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.
  4. Inspect trail or CloudTrail Lake event data store scope, retention and access.
  5. Design approved AWS Network Firewall routing and rules for inspected outbound paths.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing. The complementary correct action is: Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections. Both follow the principle: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.

B:

Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing. The complementary correct action is: Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact. Both follow the principle: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys. This is suitable for another situation: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact.) and design change (Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections.). These two steps address: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.

D:

Inspect trail or CloudTrail Lake event data store scope, retention and access. This is suitable for another situation: An incident responder needs to investigate unusual role assumptions across accounts over months, but only recent management events are readily accessible. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact.) and design change (Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections.). These two steps address: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.

E:

Design approved AWS Network Firewall routing and rules for inspected outbound paths. This is suitable for another situation: Security policy requires outbound traffic inspection, but private subnets route directly through NAT without the designated inspection path. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact.) and design change (Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections.). These two steps address: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.

Question 287

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior.
  2. A hot partition can throttle despite table-wide capacity and requires appropriate key design.
  3. Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state.
  4. Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity. Relevant first evidence: Review producer partition keys, throttling, shard metrics and consumer lag. The resulting controlled response is: Distribute partition keys appropriately and scale stream capacity based on measured demand.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Scaling policies must account for instance startup and warmup behavior. This instead addresses a different case: An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic. For the stated situation (A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot.), the better principle is: Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity. The deciding distinction is: Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity.

B:

A hot partition can throttle despite table-wide capacity and requires appropriate key design. This instead addresses a different case: A DynamoDB table has substantial unused provisioned capacity but requests to one partition key still throttle under burst load. For the stated situation (A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot.), the better principle is: Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity. The deciding distinction is: Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity.

C:

Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state. This instead addresses a different case: A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records. For the stated situation (A streaming workload begins dropping or delaying records because all events use the same partition key and one Kinesis shard is hot.), the better principle is: Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity. The deciding distinction is: Stream throughput depends on partition distribution as well as shard capacity.

Question 288

Before changing production, engineers find: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics.
  2. Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators.
  3. Inspect image scan reports, vulnerability severity policy and promotion configuration.
  4. Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. The governing principle is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout. The next controlled engineering decision is: Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. This instead addresses a different case: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better investigation is: Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

C:

Inspect image scan reports, vulnerability severity policy and promotion configuration. This instead addresses a different case: A container image with a known critical OS vulnerability is built and deployed because only compilation and unit testing are gated. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better investigation is: Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

D:

Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better investigation is: Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

Question 289

Before changing production, engineers find: A Lambda cleans abandoned development stacks nightly but occasionally deletes shared production KMS keys due to an imprecise tag query. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius.
  2. Inspect SSM Automation document version, execution permissions, targets and rate controls.
  3. Review agent connectivity, hybrid activation, licensing requirements and node enrollment.
  4. Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions. The governing principle is: Automated resource cleanup must constrain target scope and irreversible actions. The next controlled engineering decision is: Use explicit account/OU boundaries, safe tags, dry-run records and approval for destructive operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review configuration versioning, validation hooks and rollout blast radius. This instead addresses a different case: A service reads configuration directly from process environment variables, forcing a container rebuild for each feature-flag adjustment. For the stated situation (A Lambda cleans abandoned development stacks nightly but occasionally deletes shared production KMS keys due to an imprecise tag query.), the better investigation is: Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions. The deciding distinction is: Automated resource cleanup must constrain target scope and irreversible actions.

B:

Inspect SSM Automation document version, execution permissions, targets and rate controls. This instead addresses a different case: A fleet automation document runs shell commands as root across all tagged instances with no peer review or limit on execution concurrency. For the stated situation (A Lambda cleans abandoned development stacks nightly but occasionally deletes shared production KMS keys due to an imprecise tag query.), the better investigation is: Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions. The deciding distinction is: Automated resource cleanup must constrain target scope and irreversible actions.

C:

Review agent connectivity, hybrid activation, licensing requirements and node enrollment. This instead addresses a different case: A datacenter fleet and EC2 instances need the same audited patch procedure, but offline servers are not in Systems Manager inventory. For the stated situation (A Lambda cleans abandoned development stacks nightly but occasionally deletes shared production KMS keys due to an imprecise tag query.), the better investigation is: Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions. The deciding distinction is: Automated resource cleanup must constrain target scope and irreversible actions.

Question 290

A DevOps team is reviewing: Security operations wants alerts whenever Config detects that approved encryption settings are disabled on new storage resources. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect CloudWatch Synthetics canary steps, credential handling and network reachability.
  2. Inspect AWS Config rule events, EventBridge filters and automation target permissions.
  3. Associate deployment-specific health alarms and enable appropriate automated rollback.
  4. Route noncompliance events to appropriate response automation and human visibility.
  5. Inspect log JSON structure, embedded metric declarations and namespace configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect AWS Config rule events, EventBridge filters and automation target permissions. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: Security operations wants alerts whenever Config detects that approved encryption settings are disabled on new storage resources. The complementary correct action is: Route noncompliance events to appropriate response automation and human visibility. Both follow the principle: Configuration compliance events can trigger managed event routing and bounded remediation.

D:

Route noncompliance events to appropriate response automation and human visibility. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: Security operations wants alerts whenever Config detects that approved encryption settings are disabled on new storage resources. The complementary correct action is: Inspect AWS Config rule events, EventBridge filters and automation target permissions. Both follow the principle: Configuration compliance events can trigger managed event routing and bounded remediation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect CloudWatch Synthetics canary steps, credential handling and network reachability. This is suitable for another situation: An external application returns 200 for its home page even as the login endpoint has expired certificates and cannot authenticate users. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Config rule events, EventBridge filters and automation target permissions.) and design change (Route noncompliance events to appropriate response automation and human visibility.). These two steps address: Security operations wants alerts whenever Config detects that approved encryption settings are disabled on new storage resources.

C:

Associate deployment-specific health alarms and enable appropriate automated rollback. This is suitable for another situation: A new ECS task definition produces errors after traffic shift, but the deployment continues to completion because alarms are not associated with the release. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Config rule events, EventBridge filters and automation target permissions.) and design change (Route noncompliance events to appropriate response automation and human visibility.). These two steps address: Security operations wants alerts whenever Config detects that approved encryption settings are disabled on new storage resources.

E:

Inspect log JSON structure, embedded metric declarations and namespace configuration. This is suitable for another situation: An application emits useful latency values inside structured logs but operators need searchable and alarmable measurements without building a bespoke database. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect AWS Config rule events, EventBridge filters and automation target permissions.) and design change (Route noncompliance events to appropriate response automation and human visibility.). These two steps address: Security operations wants alerts whenever Config detects that approved encryption settings are disabled on new storage resources.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests