Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 17
Question 160
An engineering review identifies: An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust. Which shortcut is MOST unsafe for this exact condition?
- Create another shared IAM user for the whole development team.
- Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment.
- Allow every team to retag resources freely to satisfy any ABAC condition.
- Treat non-public bucket ACLs as proof that bucket policies cannot grant external access.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Treat non-public bucket ACLs as proof that bucket policies cannot grant external access. The case is: An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust. A safer engineering response is: Enable suitable access analysis and correct unapproved external principals. The deciding principle is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
Incorrect Answers
A:Create another shared IAM user for the whole development team. This instead addresses a different case: Developers in 25 AWS accounts authenticate with individually created IAM users whose credentials remain active after termination. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Treat non-public bucket ACLs as proof that bucket policies cannot grant external access. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
B:Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment. This instead addresses a different case: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Treat non-public bucket ACLs as proof that bucket policies cannot grant external access. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
C:Allow every team to retag resources freely to satisfy any ABAC condition. This instead addresses a different case: A shared ECS deployment role can update any workload in the account despite developers owning separate applications. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Treat non-public bucket ACLs as proof that bucket policies cannot grant external access. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
Question 161
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Gradual Lambda routing enables bounded exposure and CloudWatch-driven rollback.
- Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.
- Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
- Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records. Relevant first evidence: Inspect build provenance, repository commit IDs, image digests and ECS task definition revisions. The resulting controlled response is: Record commit metadata and promote images by immutable digest through the release pipeline.
Incorrect Answers
A:Gradual Lambda routing enables bounded exposure and CloudWatch-driven rollback. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda function update introduces intermittent errors that appear only under a small share of real requests. For the stated situation (An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service.), the better principle is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records. The deciding distinction is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.
C:Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency. This instead addresses a different case: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. For the stated situation (An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service.), the better principle is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records. The deciding distinction is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.
D:Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload. This instead addresses a different case: A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines. For the stated situation (An on-call engineer cannot tell which Git commit generated the container image running in a production ECS service.), the better principle is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records. The deciding distinction is: Delivery traceability needs immutable artifact identity linked to source and deployment records.
Question 162
Before changing production, engineers find: An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Review instance user data, launch template versions, AMIs and out-of-band modifications.
- Inspect image scan reports, vulnerability severity policy and promotion configuration.
- Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior.
- Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior. The governing principle is: Traffic shifting must account for backward-compatible shared-state dependencies. The next controlled engineering decision is: Coordinate expand-and-contract schema changes with the blue/green traffic strategy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Review instance user data, launch template versions, AMIs and out-of-band modifications. This instead addresses a different case: An operations team changes configuration in running EC2 instances manually, and Auto Scaling replacement instances lose those changes. For the stated situation (An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema.), the better investigation is: Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior. The deciding distinction is: Traffic shifting must account for backward-compatible shared-state dependencies.
B:Inspect image scan reports, vulnerability severity policy and promotion configuration. This instead addresses a different case: A container image with a known critical OS vulnerability is built and deployed because only compilation and unit testing are gated. For the stated situation (An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema.), the better investigation is: Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior. The deciding distinction is: Traffic shifting must account for backward-compatible shared-state dependencies.
D:Inspect pipeline variables, execution role permissions and organization-level Region conditions. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction. For the stated situation (An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema.), the better investigation is: Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior. The deciding distinction is: Traffic shifting must account for backward-compatible shared-state dependencies.
Question 163
A DevOps team is reviewing: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Review eventName, principal identity, request parameters, source IP and timestamp.
- Review log group retention settings, use case, compliance period and log costs.
- Instrument affected services and analyze slow traces to isolate the expensive dependency.
- Track affected images and update or replace those artifacts through governed pipelines.
- Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Instrument affected services and analyze slow traces to isolate the expensive dependency. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency. The complementary correct action is: Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations. Both follow the principle: Trace spans can isolate latency contributions across distributed calls.
E:Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency. The complementary correct action is: Instrument affected services and analyze slow traces to isolate the expensive dependency. Both follow the principle: Trace spans can isolate latency contributions across distributed calls.
Incorrect Answers
A:Review eventName, principal identity, request parameters, source IP and timestamp. This is suitable for another situation: A production security group unexpectedly allows SSH from the internet, and teams disagree who changed it. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations.) and design change (Instrument affected services and analyze slow traces to isolate the expensive dependency.). These two steps address: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency.
B:Review log group retention settings, use case, compliance period and log costs. This is suitable for another situation: A development application sends verbose logs to CloudWatch Logs indefinitely, creating growing cost and a retention-policy exception. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations.) and design change (Instrument affected services and analyze slow traces to isolate the expensive dependency.). These two steps address: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency.
D:Track affected images and update or replace those artifacts through governed pipelines. This is suitable for another situation: Amazon Inspector reports a critical package CVE on a small set of container images, but the security board assumes all images are affected. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect X-Ray service map, trace segments, status errors and downstream call durations.) and design change (Instrument affected services and analyze slow traces to isolate the expensive dependency.). These two steps address: An application has slow checkout requests only when external credit checks are called, but aggregate ALB metrics cannot locate the dependency.
Question 164
An engineering review identifies: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. Which shortcut is MOST unsafe for this exact condition?
- Create a firewall policy but leave routes bypassing its endpoints.
- Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment.
- Keep permanent admin access to avoid approval delays for rare incidents.
- Assume a source snapshot name containing encrypted makes the target volume encrypted.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment. The case is: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. A safer engineering response is: Fix the infrastructure module and enable appropriate Block Public Access plus monitoring. The deciding principle is: Preventive IaC guardrails and detective controls should enforce data exposure policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Create a firewall policy but leave routes bypassing its endpoints. This instead addresses a different case: Security policy requires outbound traffic inspection, but private subnets route directly through NAT without the designated inspection path. For the stated situation (New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment. The deciding distinction is: Preventive IaC guardrails and detective controls should enforce data exposure policy.
C:Keep permanent admin access to avoid approval delays for rare incidents. This instead addresses a different case: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. For the stated situation (New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment. The deciding distinction is: Preventive IaC guardrails and detective controls should enforce data exposure policy.
D:Assume a source snapshot name containing encrypted makes the target volume encrypted. This instead addresses a different case: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. For the stated situation (New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Rely on every developer remembering a security checklist after deployment. The deciding distinction is: Preventive IaC guardrails and detective controls should enforce data exposure policy.
Question 165
A DevOps team is reviewing: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Inspect event resource ARN, instance IDs, SSM target selectors and security requirements.
- Inspect signatures, event IDs, API Gateway/Lambda handler behavior and job queue writes.
- Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits.
- Use a controlled Systems Manager automation targeted only to eligible noncompliant nodes.
- Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy. The complementary correct action is: Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds. Both follow the principle: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
E:Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy. The complementary correct action is: Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits. Both follow the principle: Resource adjustment should respond to measured demand with bounded Auto Scaling behavior.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect event resource ARN, instance IDs, SSM target selectors and security requirements. This is suitable for another situation: An incident automation should isolate one compromised EC2 instance, but its script selects every instance in the same environment tag. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits.) and design change (Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds.). These two steps address: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy.
B:Inspect signatures, event IDs, API Gateway/Lambda handler behavior and job queue writes. This is suitable for another situation: A partner sends the same signed webhook three times after a network timeout, and an AWS ingestion function creates three fulfillment jobs. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits.) and design change (Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds.). These two steps address: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy.
D:Use a controlled Systems Manager automation targeted only to eligible noncompliant nodes. This is suitable for another situation: AWS Config finds an EC2 instance without the approved monitoring agent, but the repair Lambda has permission to modify every resource in the account. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect queue age, processing throughput, instance warmup and policy limits.) and design change (Connect relevant metrics to a bounded Auto Scaling policy with controlled thresholds.). These two steps address: A consumer service has rapidly increasing queue lag, and responders manually launch instances rather than using a safe dynamic policy.
Question 166
A DevOps team is reviewing: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Create and inspect a change set before controlled production execution.
- Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics.
- Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates.
- Coordinate expand-and-contract schema changes with the blue/green traffic strategy.
- Trigger CodeBuild tests on pull requests and make their status mandatory for merge.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. The complementary correct action is: Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates. Both follow the principle: Performance acceptance must use representative concurrency and measured service-level thresholds.
C:Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. The complementary correct action is: Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. Both follow the principle: Performance acceptance must use representative concurrency and measured service-level thresholds.
Incorrect Answers
A:Create and inspect a change set before controlled production execution. This is suitable for another situation: A pipeline applies a template change that silently replaces a stateful database resource during a minor refactor. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics.) and design change (Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates.). These two steps address: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand.
D:Coordinate expand-and-contract schema changes with the blue/green traffic strategy. This is suitable for another situation: An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics.) and design change (Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates.). These two steps address: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand.
E:Trigger CodeBuild tests on pull requests and make their status mandatory for merge. This is suitable for another situation: Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics.) and design change (Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates.). These two steps address: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand.
Question 167
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- An incompatible schema change blocks promotion before downstream processing errors occur.
- Old and new tasks can write valid rows during the transition and rollback remains feasible.
- A deliberately misconfigured test cannot send messages to a production SQS queue.
- An out-of-scope Region deployment request is rejected with an audit record.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:An incompatible schema change blocks promotion before downstream processing errors occur. The approved action is: Add producer-consumer compatibility checks to the CI pipeline. The risk principle is: Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions.
Incorrect Answers
B:Old and new tasks can write valid rows during the transition and rollback remains feasible. This instead addresses a different case: A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment. For the stated situation (An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events.), the better verification is: An incompatible schema change blocks promotion before downstream processing errors occur. The deciding distinction is: Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions.
C:A deliberately misconfigured test cannot send messages to a production SQS queue. This instead addresses a different case: Integration tests frequently overwrite production queues because staging jobs use a copied production endpoint variable. For the stated situation (An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events.), the better verification is: An incompatible schema change blocks promotion before downstream processing errors occur. The deciding distinction is: Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions.
D:An out-of-scope Region deployment request is rejected with an audit record. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment pipeline has approvals for one Region but a wrong parameter lets the same artifact create resources in an unapproved jurisdiction. For the stated situation (An updated ECS application changes a JSON field name; the deployment succeeds while downstream order processors begin dropping events.), the better verification is: An incompatible schema change blocks promotion before downstream processing errors occur. The deciding distinction is: Contract tests should validate schemas and compatibility between services across versions.
Question 168
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A planned replica or writer failover routes clients to healthy supported instances.
- Concurrent writes are reconciled according to documented business semantics.
- A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target.
- A pilot-light drill scales enough instances with free addresses and meets RTO.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target. The approved action is: Spread healthy application targets and sufficient capacity across at least two appropriate AZs. The risk principle is: Multi-AZ service design needs healthy targets and sufficient capacity in independent zones.
Incorrect Answers
A:A planned replica or writer failover routes clients to healthy supported instances. This instead addresses a different case: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader. For the stated situation (A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage.), the better verification is: A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target. The deciding distinction is: Multi-AZ service design needs healthy targets and sufficient capacity in independent zones.
B:Concurrent writes are reconciled according to documented business semantics. This instead addresses a different case: A multi-Region shopping app writes the same item in two Regions and occasionally overwrites updates unexpectedly. For the stated situation (A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage.), the better verification is: A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target. The deciding distinction is: Multi-AZ service design needs healthy targets and sufficient capacity in independent zones.
D:A pilot-light drill scales enough instances with free addresses and meets RTO. This instead addresses a different case: A pilot-light disaster recovery setup replicates data but recovery scripts try to restore full production capacity into an undersized subnet with insufficient IPs. For the stated situation (A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage.), the better verification is: A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target. The deciding distinction is: Multi-AZ service design needs healthy targets and sufficient capacity in independent zones.
Question 169
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Drift checks and authorization records can reveal out-of-band permission changes.
- AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.
- Access to SSE-KMS objects requires suitable S3 and KMS authorization.
- Preventive IaC guardrails and detective controls should enforce data exposure policy.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs. Relevant first evidence: Inspect request patterns, rule priorities, WAF logs and legitimate traffic impact. The resulting controlled response is: Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections.
Incorrect Answers
A:Drift checks and authorization records can reveal out-of-band permission changes. This instead addresses a different case: A production IAM role grants expanded privileges despite the approved CloudFormation template declaring limited access. For the stated situation (A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.), the better principle is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs. The deciding distinction is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.
C:Access to SSE-KMS objects requires suitable S3 and KMS authorization. This instead addresses a different case: An application has s3:GetObject permission but cannot read encrypted objects after a KMS key policy update. For the stated situation (A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.), the better principle is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs. The deciding distinction is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.
D:Preventive IaC guardrails and detective controls should enforce data exposure policy. This instead addresses a different case: New project buckets frequently become publicly readable because an IaC module omits S3 Block Public Access. For the stated situation (A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.), the better principle is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs. The deciding distinction is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.
Question 170
The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?
- Automate suitable recovery steps with controlled Step Functions or Systems Manager workflows.
- Provision and test a suitably sized standby baseline with controlled scale-up on failover.
- Enable supported point-in-time recovery and rehearse restoration of an isolated database.
- Configure ECS Service Auto Scaling with appropriate target tracking and bounds.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Enable supported point-in-time recovery and rehearse restoration of an isolated database. Its validation is: A recovery test restores data to an approved timestamp before the accidental update. The principle is: Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot.
Incorrect Answers
A:Automate suitable recovery steps with controlled Step Functions or Systems Manager workflows. This instead addresses a different case: A failover runbook manually changes 14 DNS and compute settings in a fixed order; quarterly drills frequently skip steps. For the stated situation (A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions.), the better engineering action is: Enable supported point-in-time recovery and rehearse restoration of an isolated database. The deciding distinction is: Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot.
B:Provision and test a suitably sized standby baseline with controlled scale-up on failover. This instead addresses a different case: A standby Region has copied AMIs but no provisioned database capacity and cannot accept traffic for hours. For the stated situation (A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions.), the better engineering action is: Enable supported point-in-time recovery and rehearse restoration of an isolated database. The deciding distinction is: Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot.
D:Configure ECS Service Auto Scaling with appropriate target tracking and bounds. This instead addresses a different case: An ECS Fargate application scales tasks manually and saturates its ALB during promotional traffic spikes. For the stated situation (A table is accidentally overwritten and operators can restore only yesterday's full snapshot, losing recent transactions.), the better engineering action is: Enable supported point-in-time recovery and rehearse restoration of an isolated database. The deciding distinction is: Point-in-time recovery depends on backup retention and database capabilities, not just one manual snapshot.