Fortinet NSE7_EFW-7.2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
You are a network administrator managing several FortiGate devices using FortiManager. To efficiently apply configuration updates across these devices, you plan to use CLI scripts within FortiManager. These scripts can be executed in different locations such as the Policy Package, ADOM Database, Device Database, or directly on Remote FortiGate devices. Depending on where a script is run, its impact and behavior can vary.
Which two statements correctly describe the behavior of executing CLI scripts in FortiManager?
A When CLI scripts are run on the Policy Package or ADOM database, the changes are immediately pushed to the connected FortiGate units
B When CLI scripts are executed on the Device Database, the changes must be manually installed using the installation wizard before taking effect on the FortiGate devices
C When CLI scripts are run on All FortiGate devices in the ADOM, the changes are deployed automatically, and no new revision history is created
D When CLI scripts are executed directly on a Remote FortiGate, administrators cannot review the changes before they are installed
Correct Answers: B D
Explanation:
FortiManager provides centralized management for Fortinet devices, allowing administrators to use CLI scripts to make configuration changes across multiple FortiGates. These scripts can be executed in different contexts, and the result depends on the execution target.
When scripts are executed on the Device Database, the changes only update the configuration stored in FortiManager’s local representation of the FortiGate. These changes do not take effect immediately on the actual device. To apply them, administrators must use the installation wizard, which reviews the changes and then pushes them to the FortiGate. This method allows for review, staging, and error checking before the deployment.
In contrast, executing a script directly on a Remote FortiGate device bypasses FortiManager’s internal configuration structure. The commands are sent in real time, and there is no built-in review step before they are applied. This approach can be useful for urgent changes but introduces risk since there is no opportunity for preview or rollback, which is especially critical in large-scale environments.
Option A is incorrect because scripts executed on the Policy Package or ADOM Database only affect the local structure within FortiManager. These do not get pushed automatically to the FortiGate devices. They still require a manual deployment using the install process.
Option C is also inaccurate. When changes are deployed across all FortiGate devices in an ADOM, FortiManager always creates a new revision history to ensure traceability and to support rollback if needed. Automatic deployments without revision tracking would contradict standard configuration management practices.
For bulk changes, understanding how FortiManager executes scripts in different scopes is essential to avoid unexpected outcomes. Using the correct execution method ensures control, consistency, and safe deployment of configurations.
Question No 2:
You are using FortiManager to deploy configuration changes to managed FortiGate devices. During this process, the Install Wizard is available to assist with applying updates. It offers specific automated functions to help streamline and control the deployment process.
Which two of the following actions can be performed automatically by the Install Wizard?
A Review and preview configuration changes that are pending for deployment on managed devices
B Add new FortiGate devices into FortiManager’s device inventory
C Retrieve and import policy packages directly from managed FortiGate devices
D Deploy and apply configuration changes to managed FortiGate devices
E Synchronize and import interface mappings from managed FortiGate devices
Correct Answers: A D
Explanation:
The Install Wizard in FortiManager plays a critical role in deploying configuration updates to FortiGate devices in a controlled and automated manner. It simplifies the process and helps ensure accuracy during deployment.
One of the core functions of the Install Wizard is to provide a detailed preview of the changes before they are applied. This includes showing the differences between the current device configuration and the updated configuration prepared in FortiManager. Administrators can review what will change, catch errors, and confirm that the updates align with expectations. This capability supports better change management and helps prevent misconfigurations.
Another key function of the Install Wizard is the actual deployment of changes. Once the preview has been reviewed and confirmed, the wizard handles pushing the updated policies, network settings, and object definitions to the FortiGate devices. This process is automated and significantly reduces the risk of configuration drift between what’s in FortiManager and what’s on the actual devices.
Option B is incorrect because adding new devices is a separate manual process handled in the Device Manager. It is not part of the Install Wizard's function.
Option C is also incorrect. While FortiManager can import policies from FortiGate, this is done using manual import processes or through other tools—not through the Install Wizard.
Option E, importing interface mappings, is related to synchronization tasks, which also fall outside the scope of the Install Wizard. These are usually done separately to keep FortiManager’s view of the device in sync.
In summary, the Install Wizard is specifically designed to help administrators preview and deploy configuration changes to FortiGate devices, making it a key component for maintaining a consistent and secure network configuration.
Question No 3:
You are diagnosing an issue with the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) on a FortiGate firewall. During your investigation, you run a diagnostic command to review the IPS engine exit log:
diagnose test application ipsmonitor 3
The output includes:
ipsengine exit log
pid = 93 (cfg), duration = 5605322 (s) at Wed Apr 19 09:57:26 2017 code = 11, reason: manual
Based on this information, what does the output indicate about the operational status of the IPS engine?
A The IPS engine’s memory usage has surpassed the predefined threshold specific to this FortiGate model
B The IPS daemon (IPS engine) crashed unexpectedly
C There is a communication failure between the IPS engine and the management database
D The IPS engine has been manually stopped, disabling IPS-related features in FortiGate’s configuration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The FortiGate diagnostic command used here provides insight into the state of the IPS engine. In the output shown, the key detail is the line that reads code = 11, reason: manual. This specifically indicates that the IPS engine was intentionally stopped rather than terminated due to an error or system fault.
An exit code of 11 accompanied by the reason listed as "manual" means that either a user manually disabled the IPS service or a configuration change resulted in it being turned off. This is not caused by a fault in the system or excessive resource usage.
Option A suggests that the IPS engine shut down due to memory overuse, which would be associated with a different exit code or memory-related messages, not a manual shutdown.
Option B indicates a crash, but a crash would typically produce a signal-related code and a description that mentions a failure or core dump. There is no such indication in this output.
Option C refers to communication issues between the IPS engine and internal databases. This would result in different errors or operational warnings and is unrelated to a manual stop code.
Option D correctly interprets the log output. Since the exit code is 11 and the reason is marked as "manual," this means the IPS engine has been intentionally stopped, possibly by administrative action or configuration change. This disables IPS functions on the FortiGate device until it is restarted.
Thus, the most accurate interpretation of the log and the correct answer is D.
Question No 4:
A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec VPN tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The connection is confirmed to not pass through any NAT device, which means NAT Traversal (NAT-T) will not be used. The administrator wants to inspect the encrypted ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) traffic using the FortiGate's built-in packet sniffer.
Which command should be used to capture only the ESP traffic as it passes through the firewall?
A diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500"
B diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 4500"
C diagnose sniffer packet any "esp"
D diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500 or udp port 4500"
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In IPsec VPN communications, different protocols are used depending on whether a NAT device is in the path. When no NAT is involved, as in this scenario, the VPN uses native ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload), which operates directly using IP protocol number 50 rather than being encapsulated in UDP.
The command diagnose sniffer packet any "esp" instructs the FortiGate to filter and display only packets that use the ESP protocol. This is the correct approach to monitor encrypted traffic that flows natively between VPN peers without any form of UDP encapsulation.
Option A targets UDP port 500, which is used for the IKE (Internet Key Exchange) process, particularly Phase 1. This port handles tunnel negotiation but does not carry encrypted data, so it is not suitable for viewing actual payload traffic.
Option B refers to UDP port 4500, which is used only in NAT-T scenarios. NAT-T is triggered when a NAT device is detected in the path between VPN peers. Since the scenario confirms there is no NAT, this port is not relevant.
Option D combines both UDP port 500 and 4500 but still fails to capture ESP traffic, which is transmitted using protocol 50, not UDP.
Therefore, to analyze encrypted IPsec traffic when there is no NAT, the correct sniffer command is:
diagnose sniffer packet any "esp"
This will allow the administrator to confirm whether ESP packets are being sent and received correctly, which is essential in diagnosing VPN connectivity or performance issues in this setup. The correct answer is C.
Question No 5:
In a scenario where static routing is being used in a network, certain requirements must be met for a static route to be activated and included in the router’s routing table. Static routes are configured manually and do not adjust dynamically based on changes in the network. For these routes to function properly, the router must validate specific conditions to ensure that traffic can successfully reach the intended destination.
Which three of the following conditions must be satisfied for a static route to become active and appear in the routing table? (Choose three)
A The next-hop IP address is reachable and responding
B There is no other route to the same destination with a lower administrative distance
C The link health monitor, if configured, must be operational
D The next-hop IP address must be within the subnet range of one of the router’s active interfaces
E The outgoing interface associated with the route must be in an up/active state
Correct Answers: C, D, E
Explanation:
For a static route to be operational and present in the router’s routing table, several conditions need to be satisfied. These conditions help ensure that the router has a valid path to forward packets and prevent black holes in the network where packets are dropped due to invalid routes.
One required condition is that the outgoing interface specified in the static route must be in an up state. If the interface is down, the router cannot use it to forward traffic, and the static route will be considered invalid.
Another critical condition is that the next-hop IP address must be reachable through one of the router’s connected subnets. This means that the next-hop address must lie within the IP range of an interface that is currently active and connected. If the router cannot determine a valid path to the next hop, the route will not be installed.
If the router is using link health monitoring, such as ping-based tracking or object tracking, then the health monitor must show that the path is up. This adds dynamic validation to static routes. If the monitored link goes down, the static route is automatically removed from the routing table.
Options A and B are not required for a static route to be considered active. While reachability of the next-hop IP is important, it is not automatically verified unless a monitoring mechanism is in place. Administrative distance affects the selection among multiple competing routes but not whether a static route is placed in the routing table by itself.
Therefore, the conditions in C, D, and E accurately describe what is needed for a static route to be active and usable.
Question No 6:
An IT administrator has configured a High Availability (HA) cluster using two FortiGate units to provide network redundancy. During testing of the failover process, the administrator observes that after the primary FortiGate fails over to the secondary, some switches continue sending traffic to the old primary. To address this issue and help switches recognize the new active device, the administrator enables the link-failed-signal feature.
Which of the following best explains what happens when link-failed-signal is enabled?
A The command causes the former primary FortiGate device to temporarily disable all non-heartbeat interfaces for one second during failover
B It sends out an ARP broadcast to inform all connected devices that the virtual MAC address now points to the new primary unit
C It triggers a "link failed" notification to all directly connected network devices
D All non-heartbeat interfaces on every HA member are disabled for two seconds after the failover process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
In FortiGate HA deployments, failover between units must be seamless to ensure minimal service disruption. One common issue in these scenarios involves how network switches maintain and update their MAC address tables. FortiGate HA uses virtual MAC addresses to provide consistent addressing regardless of which unit is active.
When a failover happens and a new FortiGate becomes primary, the virtual MAC address moves with it. However, connected switches might not immediately recognize this change and continue to associate the MAC with the port connected to the old primary device. As a result, some traffic is misrouted or dropped.
To solve this, the link-failed-signal command can be enabled. This command instructs the former primary FortiGate to temporarily bring down all its non-heartbeat interfaces for one second. This brief link interruption causes switches to treat the port as down, which clears the MAC address association tied to that port. When the interfaces come back up, the switches detect the new path and re-learn the correct port associated with the virtual MAC address, now pointing to the new active FortiGate.
This approach is especially useful in networks where switches have slow MAC address table aging or do not react quickly to MAC address changes. The temporary link down event effectively forces an immediate reevaluation by the switches.
Option B is incorrect because although ARP broadcasts may help update MAC address tables, the link-failed-signal command is specifically about manipulating interface states, not sending ARP messages. Option C misinterprets the process as a general notification, which is not the behavior here. Option D incorrectly suggests that all HA units perform the link-down, but it is only the former primary that disables its interfaces briefly.
Thus, A correctly describes the purpose and function of link-failed-signal in FortiGate HA setups.
Question No 7:
You are reviewing routing behavior on a FortiGate firewall using the outputs from two routing debug commands: get router info kernel and get router info routing-table all. The kernel routing table shows three default routes (0.0.0.0/0) assigned to the following interfaces:
port1 with gateway 10.200.1.254
port2 with gateway 10.200.2.254
port3 with gateway 10.1.1.254
The routing table output lists the default route as a static route using port1 and port2, each with an administrative distance of 10 and a metric of 0. This is shown as:
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [10/0] via 10.200.1.254, port1
[10/0] via 10.200.2.254, port2
Additionally, directly connected subnets appear as follows:
port1: 10.200.1.0/24
port2: 10.200.2.0/24
port3: 10.1.0.0/24
Based on this routing information, which interface or interfaces will the FortiGate use to forward web traffic from internal users to the Internet?
A Both port1 and port2
B port3
C port1
D port2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In FortiGate routing, the active routing table is used to determine how traffic is forwarded. When multiple routes exist to the same destination, FortiGate compares the administrative distance and metric to select the best path. In this case, the routing table contains two default routes (0.0.0.0/0) with the same administrative distance and cost, assigned to port1 and port2. Because both routes are considered equal in preference, FortiGate activates Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) routing.
ECMP enables the firewall to distribute traffic across multiple interfaces that have equal-cost routes. FortiGate typically uses a round-robin or session-based hashing method to balance outbound sessions between the interfaces. This improves bandwidth usage and provides redundancy in case one link fails.
Although port3 also has a route, it is only associated with a directly connected subnet (10.1.0.0/24) and does not participate in routing Internet-bound traffic. Therefore, it is not considered for routing to the default gateway.
Since both port1 and port2 appear in the active routing table as equal-cost default routes, FortiGate will use both interfaces to forward outbound web traffic. This setup ensures better utilization of network resources and greater fault tolerance.
Question No 8:
You are configuring two FortiGate firewalls to establish OSPF adjacency. In order for them to successfully recognize each other as OSPF neighbors and exchange routing information, certain technical conditions must be met.
Which three of the following criteria are required for a successful OSPF adjacency between the devices?
A The IP addresses of both devices must be within the same subnet
B The hello and dead timer intervals configured on both devices must be identical
C The OSPF IP Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) values must match
D The OSPF router IDs (peer IDs) must be the same
E The OSPF interface costs must be the same
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
OSPF is a link-state dynamic routing protocol that requires specific configuration alignment between routers to form an adjacency. For FortiGate devices to successfully form an OSPF neighbor relationship, they must meet a set of core compatibility conditions.
First, the devices must have OSPF interfaces configured with IP addresses in the same subnet. OSPF uses Layer 3 communication to send hello packets, and mismatched subnets prevent these packets from reaching their intended neighbors.
Second, both firewalls must have matching hello and dead intervals. The hello interval dictates how frequently OSPF hello packets are sent, while the dead interval determines how long the device waits without hearing a hello before considering the neighbor down. A mismatch in either of these values will prevent neighbor relationships from forming.
Third, the OSPF MTU setting must be the same on both sides. During the Database Description (DBD) packet exchange phase of OSPF adjacency formation, the devices check MTU values. A mismatch can cause the exchange to fail and halt the adjacency process.
Option D is incorrect because OSPF router IDs must be unique. If both devices have the same router ID, they cannot function correctly within the OSPF domain, as this can cause routing conflicts and unpredictable behavior.
Option E, the OSPF interface cost, is not a requirement for forming an adjacency. Costs influence route selection after the adjacency is already established but have no impact on the actual formation of the neighbor relationship.
Meeting the required conditions ensures that the FortiGate devices can exchange OSPF updates and build a stable dynamic routing topology.
Question No 9:
When configuring a FortiGate unit to operate in transparent mode, what is the main function of this deployment method?
A. It enables the device to act as a DHCP server for downstream clients.
B. It allows the firewall to inspect traffic without altering the IP scheme.
C. It provides automatic routing between VLAN interfaces.
D. It converts the firewall into a WAN optimization device.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In a transparent mode deployment, the FortiGate firewall functions as a bridge instead of a traditional Layer 3 routing device. This setup allows network traffic to pass through the firewall without requiring IP address changes or route reconfiguration. Essentially, FortiGate becomes invisible to network devices—making it ideal for networks where changes to IP addressing or topology are not desirable or possible.
This is particularly useful when deploying FortiGate into an existing network where you want to apply security policies and inspection without modifying the existing network design. The firewall inspects all traffic between interfaces on the same subnet or across VLANs (if configured) and applies security profiles, policies, and logging as if it were a full Layer 3 firewall. However, it does not participate in IP routing in the traditional sense.
Option A is incorrect because while FortiGate can serve as a DHCP server, this is not a defining feature of transparent mode.
Option C is incorrect as routing between VLAN interfaces still requires policies and appropriate configuration; transparent mode itself doesn’t enable automatic routing.
Option D is inaccurate because WAN optimization is a separate feature and not inherently linked to transparent mode.
In summary, transparent mode provides a stealth deployment option for FortiGate devices, allowing in-line security without disrupting the existing IP architecture, making it ideal for data center insertions or retrofit deployments where minimal network disruption is required.
Question No 10:
Which feature must be configured on FortiGate to ensure that administrators can access the device remotely using SSH over a specific interface?
A. Enable Virtual Wire Pair mode on the interface.
B. Add a static route for the management subnet.
C. Assign an IP address and enable SSH in the administrative access settings.
D. Create a custom service object for SSH and bind it to the WAN interface.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
To allow remote SSH access to a FortiGate firewall, the first and most essential step is to assign a valid IP address to the desired interface and then enable SSH under the administrative access settings. Without assigning an IP, the interface cannot respond to any remote management traffic, including SSH, HTTP, or HTTPS.
Once the IP is configured, enabling SSH on the interface allows remote administrators to connect securely using Secure Shell (SSH) protocol. This is commonly used for command-line configuration, troubleshooting, or automation through CLI scripts. It's also critical to control which interfaces have SSH enabled to reduce exposure and potential attack surfaces.
Option A (Virtual Wire Pair) refers to another deployment mode that does not affect administrative access directly.
Option B is only relevant if the admin's machine is on a different subnet and requires routing.
Option D involves creating custom services, which is not required unless specific port customization is needed, which is rare for SSH (which defaults to port 22).
This configuration ensures secure and controlled remote management, which is vital for system maintenance and quick access during outages or updates.
