Juniper JN0-335 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
What are the reasons to choose vSRX over cSRX when planning to implement a virtualized SRX device in your network? (Select two reasons.)
A. vSRX supports both Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations.
B. Clustering is only supported by vSRX.
C. vSRX offers quicker boot times than cSRX.
D. vSRX is the exclusive model offering NAT, IPS, and UTM services.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
When comparing vSRX and cSRX for implementation in a virtualized network environment, there are several factors that influence the choice, particularly when it comes to performance, features, and the virtualized nature of vSRX. Here’s why the correct answers are A and C:
A. vSRX supports both Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations:
One of the significant advantages of vSRX over cSRX is that it supports both Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations. This is crucial for environments where you need flexibility in deployment, especially in a virtualized network, where you may need to configure either Layer 2 bridging or Layer 3 routing depending on the use case. cSRX is typically more hardware-oriented and may not support all the flexible deployment options available in vSRX.
C. vSRX offers quicker boot times than cSRX:
vSRX, being a virtualized appliance, generally has faster boot times compared to cSRX, which is more hardware-specific. This is a common trait of virtualized appliances, as they benefit from the agility of virtual environments, where booting and provisioning are often faster compared to hardware appliances. This quicker boot time is beneficial in scenarios where rapid deployment or recovery is required.
Let’s address why the other options are incorrect:
B. Clustering is only supported by vSRX:
This statement is incorrect because clustering is supported by both vSRX and cSRX. Clustering allows multiple devices to work together to provide high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. However, cSRX and vSRX can both be part of a cluster, depending on the deployment scenario.
D. vSRX is the exclusive model offering NAT, IPS, and UTM services:
This statement is incorrect. Both vSRX and cSRX offer NAT (Network Address Translation), IPS (Intrusion Prevention System), and UTM (Unified Threat Management) services. These services are not exclusive to vSRX, as both models provide these core security features depending on the configuration and licensing.
Thus, the primary reasons to choose vSRX over cSRX are vSRX's support for both Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations and its quicker boot times.
Question 2:
How does the IoT Security feature on the SRX Series devices detect traffic coming from IoT devices?
A. The SRX Series device sends metadata of IoT device traffic to the Juniper ATP Cloud.
B. The SRX Series device forwards IoT traffic to the Juniper ATP Cloud.
C. The SRX Series device identifies IoT devices by their MAC addresses.
D. The SRX Series device identifies IoT devices by analyzing metadata from their traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The IoT Security feature on the SRX Series devices detects traffic coming from IoT devices by analyzing metadata from their traffic. This approach is effective because it allows the SRX devices to passively monitor traffic without needing to specifically identify each IoT device by its unique characteristics (like MAC address). By analyzing the metadata—which includes information such as communication patterns, application behavior, and network characteristics—the SRX Series can identify traffic that is likely coming from an IoT device, even if it doesn't have specific details about the device itself.
Here’s why the other options are incorrect:
A. The SRX Series device sends metadata of IoT device traffic to the Juniper ATP Cloud:
While the SRX Series device can send information to the Juniper ATP Cloud for further analysis and threat intelligence, this is not the primary method for detecting IoT traffic. The detection itself occurs locally on the SRX device through metadata analysis. The cloud integration is for enhancing the analysis but not directly for detecting IoT traffic.
B. The SRX Series device forwards IoT traffic to the Juniper ATP Cloud:
This option is incorrect because the detection of IoT devices is based on analyzing the traffic locally on the SRX device, not forwarding the traffic to the ATP Cloud. While the cloud can be used for further analysis or threat intelligence, the primary detection method is performed on the device.
C. The SRX Series device identifies IoT devices by their MAC addresses:
Identifying IoT devices purely by MAC addresses is a limited approach, as many IoT devices may not have easily recognizable MAC address patterns, and some may even use dynamic or anonymized MAC addresses. The SRX device uses a more advanced method involving the analysis of metadata rather than just relying on MAC addresses, which makes it a more reliable and scalable method for detecting IoT traffic.
Thus, the correct method for detecting IoT traffic is by analyzing metadata from the IoT device’s traffic.
Question 3:
Which two statements about the fab interface in a chassis cluster are correct? (Select two.)
A. The fab link does not support fragmentation.
B. You must specify the physical interface for the fab link in the configuration.
C. The fab link supports regular interface features.
D. Junos OS only supports a single fab link.
Answer: A and B
Explanation:
The fab interface in a chassis cluster plays a critical role in enabling communication between the two nodes of a cluster, particularly for forwarding state synchronization and fabric traffic. This interface, also referred to as the fabric link, is essential to ensuring that both nodes can operate in tandem, maintaining consistency and continuity in packet forwarding during failover scenarios.
Option A is correct because fragmentation is not supported on the fab interface. This is an important design detail in Junos OS. Because the fab link is used for high-speed synchronization between nodes, it is expected that packets transmitted over this interface are already properly sized. Fragmentation introduces latency and processing overhead, which would be detrimental to performance and reliability. Therefore, packets sent over the fab link must be MTU-compliant, and it's up to the administrator to ensure that path MTU settings prevent fragmentation across this interface.
Option B is also correct. When setting up a chassis cluster in Junos OS, the physical interfaces used for fab0 and fab1 must be explicitly defined in the configuration. This is done using set chassis cluster commands, where the admin specifies the member interfaces to be used for the fabric link. These physical interfaces are then treated as internal communication paths between the cluster nodes and are configured during initial cluster setup.
Option C is incorrect. Fab interfaces do not support standard or regular interface features such as assigning IP addresses, enabling protocols like OSPF or BGP, or setting firewall filters. These interfaces are strictly for cluster node communication and are managed internally by Junos. Attempting to use standard L3 features on these interfaces would either be unsupported or lead to unpredictable behavior.
Option D is also incorrect. Junos OS supports multiple fab links, especially on high-end SRX platforms. In some cluster configurations (such as active-active deployments), fab0 and fab1 are configured for redundancy and performance. Supporting more than one fab interface improves resilience and bandwidth between nodes. Therefore, the claim that "only a single fab link is supported" is inaccurate and does not reflect Junos OS capabilities.
In summary, Option A and Option B correctly identify characteristics of the fab interface: the lack of fragmentation support and the requirement to explicitly define physical interfaces in configuration.
Question 4:
Once JSA (Juniper Secure Analytics) receives external events and flows, what happens next? (Select two steps.)
A. Data is formatted and stored in an asset database.
B. Data is analyzed for relevant information before formatting.
C. Data is formatted before being filtered.
D. JSA takes active measures after filtering the data.
Answer: B and C
Explanation:
Juniper Secure Analytics (JSA), based on IBM QRadar technology, is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) solution designed to collect, analyze, and correlate security event logs and flow data from various sources across an enterprise. Understanding how JSA processes data after it receives external events and flows is vital for configuring and interpreting the analytics it provides.
Option B is correct because one of the first steps JSA takes upon receiving raw data is to analyze it for relevance. This means JSA performs a quick pre-processing operation that helps to classify and prioritize the incoming data. This process is essential to determine whether the incoming data is security-relevant or useful for behavioral analysis. This step helps reduce noise and optimize system performance by filtering out unnecessary or redundant logs. Therefore, the idea that analysis precedes formatting is accurate in this context.
Option C is also correct. Once the relevant data is identified, JSA proceeds to format the data before applying any filtering rules. Formatting includes normalizing the data into a standard schema, which allows for consistent parsing, storage, and future correlation. This process enables JSA to correlate events from different devices and vendors effectively. The formatting step is essential for making sense of diverse log formats, as raw event data can vary significantly from one device to another.
Option A is incorrect. While JSA maintains several internal databases, including asset profiles, events and flows are not directly formatted and stored into an asset database. The asset database stores information about systems on the network, their behavior, vulnerabilities, and observed risks. While JSA uses event and flow data to update asset profiles over time, the direct action after receiving external data is not to immediately place it into an asset database. Instead, the data goes through processing, correlation, and storage in separate event and flow databases.
Option D is incorrect because JSA is fundamentally a passive monitoring and analytics system. It does not take active measures such as automatically blocking IP addresses or quarantining systems after filtering data. While it can generate alerts, notifications, and reports, and it can integrate with other systems (like firewalls or NACs) to initiate responses, these actions are not taken directly by JSA after filtering. Any active measure typically requires orchestration via external integrations or administrative action.
Thus, the correct post-ingestion steps in JSA are: analyze the data for relevant information before formatting (B) and format the data before filtering (C), making these the correct answers.
Question 5:
Which two statements are true about SSL proxy server protection on SRX Series devices? (Select two.)
A. SSL proxy on SRX Series does not require any server-side configuration.
B. Server certificates must be uploaded to the SRX Series device.
C. Servers must be configured specifically to use the SSL proxy function.
D. The root CA must be imported on the servers.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
SSL Proxy on SRX Series devices is designed to provide deep packet inspection for SSL traffic, enabling the device to decrypt, inspect, and re-encrypt the traffic for security purposes. When implementing SSL proxy protection on SRX devices, the following two statements are true:
A. SSL proxy on SRX Series does not require any server-side configuration:
This statement is true because the SSL proxy on the SRX Series operates on the device itself to intercept and manage SSL traffic. The configuration typically occurs on the SRX device to decrypt incoming SSL traffic, inspect it for security threats, and then re-encrypt the traffic. Server-side configuration is not required for SSL proxy functionality because the SRX device performs the SSL decryption and inspection on behalf of the client-server communication.
B. Server certificates must be uploaded to the SRX Series device:
This statement is also true. In order for the SRX device to properly intercept and decrypt SSL traffic, the server certificates (for example, the certificates of the SSL servers the device is protecting) must be uploaded to the SRX device. These certificates are necessary for the SRX device to establish trust when decrypting the encrypted SSL sessions.
Now, let’s address the incorrect options:
C. Servers must be configured specifically to use the SSL proxy function:
This statement is incorrect. The SSL proxy does not require specific configuration on the servers themselves. The servers do not need to be aware that the SRX device is handling SSL proxy functions; the device simply intercepts and inspects the traffic between the client and the server.
D. The root CA must be imported on the servers:
This statement is incorrect because it’s not the servers that need the root CA. The SRX device needs the root CA certificate for validating the server certificates during SSL decryption. It is the SRX device that must have the root CA certificate imported, not the servers.
Thus, the correct answers are A and B.
Question 6:
Which two statements are accurate regarding chassis clustering in Juniper devices? (Select two.)
A. The node ID ranges from 1 to 255.
B. The node ID is used to identify each device within the chassis cluster.
C. A system reboot is needed to apply changes to the cluster ID.
D. The cluster ID is used to identify each device within the chassis cluster.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
In the context of chassis clustering in Juniper devices, there are specific configurations regarding node IDs and cluster IDs. Here’s an explanation of the two correct answers:
B. The node ID is used to identify each device within the chassis cluster:
This statement is true. The node ID is a unique identifier assigned to each device in a chassis cluster. It helps distinguish between devices in the cluster for management, monitoring, and configuration purposes. The node ID allows the system to identify and interact with each specific device within the cluster.
C. A system reboot is needed to apply changes to the cluster ID:
This statement is also true. In a Juniper chassis cluster, the cluster ID is used to uniquely identify the entire cluster. If changes are made to the cluster ID, it requires a system reboot to apply the new configuration and ensure that the cluster operates correctly with the new ID. A reboot is necessary to propagate the cluster ID changes across the cluster nodes.
Now, let’s discuss why the other options are incorrect:
A. The node ID ranges from 1 to 255:
This statement is incorrect. The valid range for node IDs typically depends on the specific model of the device, but for many Juniper devices, the node ID ranges from 0 to 3 (or sometimes a slightly higher range), not from 1 to 255. The number of nodes that can be part of the chassis cluster is usually limited by the device capabilities, and the exact range may vary.
D. The cluster ID is used to identify each device within the chassis cluster:
This statement is incorrect. The cluster ID is used to identify the entire chassis cluster, not individual devices within the cluster. Each device in the cluster is identified by its node ID, not by the cluster ID. The cluster ID identifies the grouping of devices as a whole, while node IDs are used to identify each individual device within the cluster.
Thus, the correct answers are B and C.
Question 7:
You want to track network traffic using IPS signatures. Which AppSecure module would help you achieve this?
A. AppTrack
B. AppQoS
C. AppFW
D. APPID
Answer: C
Explanation:
Juniper’s AppSecure suite is a set of security services used on SRX Series devices to provide advanced application-level visibility and control. It includes several modules, each designed for specific functionality related to application awareness, traffic control, or security enforcement. To determine which module is best suited for tracking network traffic using IPS signatures, it’s essential to understand the role and capability of each AppSecure component.
Option C, AppFW (Application Firewall), is the correct choice. AppFW provides the ability to enforce security policies based on application identification, which can include Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) signatures. While AppFW itself does not generate IPS signatures, it leverages the underlying AppID engine and integrates with the IPS subsystem on SRX devices. This module allows administrators to define rules that use deep packet inspection and application signatures, which include IPS pattern matching, to detect and block unwanted or malicious traffic. Therefore, AppFW is tightly coupled with the IPS engine and is used when tracking or reacting to traffic based on those signatures.
Option A, AppTrack, is incorrect. Although AppTrack is used to monitor application traffic, including collecting statistics like session counts and byte counts, it does not enforce security policies or track IPS signature activity. AppTrack is primarily focused on visibility and reporting, helping administrators understand application usage patterns. It does not perform inspection or detection based on IPS signatures.
Option B, AppQoS, is designed for quality of service (QoS) enforcement based on application type. It enables the prioritization of traffic to ensure performance for critical applications. Like AppTrack, it relies on the AppID engine for application recognition but does not use IPS signatures. It’s meant for traffic shaping rather than for detecting malicious patterns or behaviors.
Option D, APPID, refers to the application identification engine itself. It underpins the other AppSecure modules by identifying applications based on their signatures and behaviors. However, APPID is not a standalone module that an administrator can directly configure to track traffic or enforce security policies. Instead, it functions in the background, providing intelligence to modules like AppFW, AppTrack, and AppQoS.
In conclusion, the module in the AppSecure suite that enables the tracking and control of traffic based on IPS signatures is AppFW. It integrates application awareness with IPS functionality, making C the correct answer.
Question 8:
Which two features are offered by the Juniper SRX Series devices in terms of high availability? (Select two.)
A. Clustering of devices to form a logical unit.
B. The ability to create redundant hardware interfaces.
C. Stateful failover between cluster nodes.
D. The SRX device can support up to 4 active devices in a chassis cluster.
Answer: A and C
Explanation:
Juniper SRX Series devices offer a variety of features designed to support high availability (HA) and ensure continuous, reliable network operations. These features are essential for enterprise environments where downtime must be minimized, and resilience is a key requirement.
Option A is correct. Juniper SRX Series devices support clustering to form a logical unit called a chassis cluster. Clustering allows two physical devices to act as a single logical unit, providing redundancy and improving network availability. In a chassis cluster, one device acts as the primary node, while the other serves as a backup node. If the primary node fails, the backup node takes over, ensuring no interruption in service.
Option C is also correct. Stateful failover is a core feature of Juniper SRX Series devices in HA configurations. When deployed in a chassis cluster, the devices support stateful failover, meaning that session data, such as ongoing connections, is maintained during a failover event. This ensures that active connections do not get dropped, providing seamless failover and minimizing disruption to users and services. This feature is critical for maintaining business continuity in environments with high traffic or important connections.
Option B, while related to high availability, is not focused on clustering. The ability to create redundant hardware interfaces pertains more to the overall network architecture and interface design, providing failover at the interface level, but it does not directly relate to the high availability clustering capabilities of the SRX devices. This capability is more about ensuring that network interfaces themselves are redundant, but it doesn't guarantee high availability in the same way that clustering and stateful failover do.
Option D is incorrect. Juniper SRX devices, when configured in a chassis cluster, do not support up to 4 active devices. Instead, they typically support two devices in a chassis cluster (active/backup configuration). The claim of supporting up to 4 active devices in a chassis cluster is not a supported feature in the SRX Series.
In conclusion, the two key high availability features offered by the SRX Series devices are clustering to form a logical unit (A) and stateful failover between cluster nodes (C), making these the correct answers.
Question 9:
What is the purpose of the AppTrack module in the context of AppSecure?
A. To provide deep packet inspection of encrypted traffic.
B. To monitor and report application usage across the network.
C. To classify network traffic based on known attack patterns.
D. To enforce policies on network traffic based on its origin.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The AppTrack module, as part of Juniper's AppSecure solution, is primarily designed to monitor and report application usage across the network. It provides detailed visibility into application traffic, including the types of applications being used, the volume of traffic they generate, and their performance characteristics. This helps organizations understand application behavior and optimize network resources accordingly.
Now, let’s examine why the other options are incorrect:
A. To provide deep packet inspection of encrypted traffic:
This statement is incorrect. Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) of encrypted traffic is typically associated with other security modules, such as SSL proxy or decryption services. AppTrack focuses on application-level monitoring and reporting, not the inspection of encrypted traffic.
C. To classify network traffic based on known attack patterns:
This is incorrect. The AppTrack module is not focused on identifying or classifying traffic based on attack patterns. Instead, it is used to provide visibility into the usage and performance of applications, without directly correlating traffic to attack patterns.
D. To enforce policies on network traffic based on its origin:
This is incorrect. While policy enforcement is a part of the AppSecure suite, AppTrack itself is not responsible for enforcing policies based on the origin of traffic. It is a monitoring and reporting tool for application usage, not a policy enforcement engine.
Thus, the correct answer is B, as the purpose of AppTrack is to monitor and report on application usage across the network.
Question 10:
Which two options are key benefits of using Juniper’s Sky ATP (Advanced Threat Protection)? (Select two.)
A. Sky ATP performs real-time behavioral analysis of network traffic.
B. Sky ATP only works with physical SRX devices, not virtual SRX.
C. Sky ATP integrates with Juniper firewalls for automated threat mitigation.
D. Sky ATP blocks traffic only based on predefined signatures.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Juniper's Sky ATP (Advanced Threat Protection) provides advanced security features that help detect and mitigate threats across the network. Here are the correct benefits:
A. Sky ATP performs real-time behavioral analysis of network traffic:
This statement is correct. One of the key capabilities of Sky ATP is its ability to perform real-time behavioral analysis of network traffic. It leverages advanced techniques to identify suspicious patterns and anomalies that may indicate a potential threat, providing dynamic threat detection beyond traditional signature-based methods.
C. Sky ATP integrates with Juniper firewalls for automated threat mitigation:
This is also correct. Sky ATP seamlessly integrates with Juniper firewalls, such as the SRX Series. This integration enables automated threat mitigation by allowing the firewall to respond to threats in real time, either by blocking malicious traffic or taking other protective actions, based on the insights from Sky ATP.
Now, let’s explain why the other options are incorrect:
B. Sky ATP only works with physical SRX devices, not virtual SRX:
This statement is incorrect. Sky ATP works with both physical and virtual SRX devices. It can provide threat protection across a range of deployment types, ensuring comprehensive security regardless of whether the deployment is physical or virtual.
D. Sky ATP blocks traffic only based on predefined signatures:
This is incorrect. While Sky ATP does incorporate signature-based detection, it is not limited to just predefined signatures. It uses advanced behavioral analysis, machine learning, and cloud-based threat intelligence to identify threats, enabling detection of previously unknown or zero-day threats, which goes beyond traditional signature-based methods.
Thus, the correct answers are A and C as key benefits of Sky ATP are its ability to perform real-time behavioral analysis and its integration with Juniper firewalls for automated threat mitigation.
