ISC CISSP-ISSMP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
As a program manager overseeing multiple project initiatives, you're evaluating different procurement strategies with your team of project managers. After analysis, you eliminate one contract model due to its substantial risk exposure for the buyer.
Which type of procurement contract typically carries the greatest financial risk for the purchasing organization?
A. Cost Reimbursement with Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed-Price with Fixed Fee
C. Cost Reimbursement with Percentage-Based Fee (CPPC)
D. Time and Materials Agreement (T&M)
Answer: C
Explanation:
When evaluating procurement contracts, understanding the level of financial risk to the purchasing organization is crucial. Different contract models allocate risk between the buyer and the seller in different ways, and the Cost Reimbursement with Percentage-Based Fee (CPPC) contract typically carries the greatest financial risk for the purchasing organization.
In a CPPC (Cost Reimbursement with Percentage-Based Fee) contract, the buyer reimburses the seller for all allowable costs incurred during the project, plus a percentage-based fee. The fee is typically calculated as a percentage of the costs incurred by the seller. This structure means that the seller has little incentive to control costs, as their fee is directly tied to the total cost of the project. The buyer, on the other hand, assumes much of the financial risk because they are responsible for reimbursing the full cost of the project plus the percentage-based fee.
The risk to the buyer increases because there is no fixed price, and the seller's profit grows with the project’s expenses. This creates a potential for cost overruns, making the contract highly risky for the buyer, as the final cost is unknown and could escalate significantly.
Option A, the Cost Reimbursement with Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract, has more cost control mechanisms than a CPPC contract. While the buyer still reimburses costs, the incentive fee is designed to encourage the seller to keep costs low. In CPIF contracts, the seller receives a fixed percentage of any savings achieved by keeping the project under budget, which provides an incentive to minimize costs. As a result, the buyer’s risk is somewhat mitigated compared to a CPPC contract.
Option B, Fixed-Price with Fixed Fee, is one of the least risky procurement contract types for the buyer because the buyer agrees to pay a fixed price for the entire project, regardless of the seller’s actual costs. Therefore, the buyer’s financial exposure is limited to the agreed-upon fixed price. The seller assumes the risk of cost overruns or inefficiencies.
Option D, the Time and Materials Agreement (T&M), is a hybrid model where the buyer agrees to pay for the seller’s time and materials used in the project. While it can be more costly than a fixed-price model, the buyer can monitor progress and adjust the project’s scope or resource allocation to control costs. It is not as risky as the CPPC model, as the buyer only pays for actual time and materials, with no percentage-based fee linked to total project cost.
In conclusion, the CPPC contract carries the greatest financial risk for the buyer because it reimburses the seller for all costs incurred, plus a percentage-based fee, giving the seller little incentive to control costs and placing the buyer at a higher financial risk.
Question 2:
Identify the agency dedicated to supporting community-level efforts to design policies and tactics aimed at investigating and preventing crimes related to child exploitation, especially in cases involving digital child pornography.
Which of the following programs fulfills this mission?
A. Internet Crimes Against Children Task Force (ICAC)
B. Project Safe Childhood (PSC)
C. Anti-Child Porn.org Coalition
D. Innocent Images National Task Force (IINI)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Internet Crimes Against Children Task Force (ICAC) is the agency dedicated to supporting community-level efforts aimed at investigating and preventing crimes related to child exploitation, especially those involving digital child pornography. The ICAC program is part of the U.S. Department of Justice's broader efforts to address and combat internet-related child exploitation crimes.
The ICAC task force operates through a network of over 60 regional task forces throughout the United States. Its focus is on enhancing the ability of local and state law enforcement agencies to identify, investigate, and prosecute internet crimes against children, including digital child pornography. The task force provides training, resources, and technical assistance to law enforcement officers, helping them better handle these types of investigations and improve their response to crimes like child exploitation, online predation, and child pornography.
Option B, Project Safe Childhood (PSC), is a broader initiative led by the U.S. Department of Justice to protect children from sexual exploitation and abuse, which includes efforts to tackle online crimes. While PSC plays a significant role in addressing child exploitation, it is more focused on a wide range of child protection efforts, including educational campaigns, victim support, and public awareness.
Option C, Anti-Child Porn.org Coalition, does not refer to an established government agency or program focused on child exploitation investigations. It seems more like a general advocacy group, rather than a law enforcement entity dedicated to investigating and preventing crimes related to child pornography.
Option D, Innocent Images National Task Force (IINI), is a specialized group that deals with crimes involving the sexual exploitation of children through images, particularly in the context of child pornography. Although this task force addresses similar issues, ICAC is specifically designed to provide a broader community-level response, encompassing local, state, and national efforts to combat internet-based child exploitation.
In conclusion, the Internet Crimes Against Children Task Force (ICAC) is the correct answer because it directly addresses the investigation and prevention of crimes related to digital child pornography, providing a community-level, law enforcement-focused framework for tackling these serious issues.
Question 3:
In which contract arrangement does the vendor receive full reimbursement for all approved costs during the execution of the project, along with a predetermined additional amount based on a percentage of projected costs?
A. Fixed Price Agreement
B. Cost-Reimbursement with Fixed Fee (CPFF)
C. Incentive-Based Fixed Price Contract
D. Cost-Reimbursement with Incentive Fee (CPIF)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Cost-Reimbursement with Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract arrangement is where the vendor receives full reimbursement for all approved costs incurred during the execution of the project, in addition to a predetermined fixed fee that is typically agreed upon based on a percentage of projected costs. This fee is fixed regardless of the actual project costs. The fixed fee acts as a form of compensation for the seller's overhead and profit and is not tied to project performance or savings.
Under this contract type, the buyer assumes the financial risk of the project, as they are responsible for reimbursing the vendor for any legitimate costs incurred, and they pay a fixed fee regardless of how efficiently the project is completed. However, the vendor's profit remains fixed, so there is no incentive for the vendor to minimize costs or finish the project early. This structure can be useful when the scope of the work is difficult to define or estimate in advance.
Option A, the Fixed Price Agreement, involves the buyer and seller agreeing to a fixed price for the entire project, regardless of the actual costs incurred by the seller. There is no reimbursement for costs, and the vendor assumes the risk for completing the project within the agreed price. This is a more predictable and risk-mitigated approach for the buyer but is not the correct match for the question's description.
Option C, the Incentive-Based Fixed Price Contract, allows the vendor to earn additional compensation if they meet certain performance targets (e.g., completing the project ahead of schedule or under budget). The payment is based on a fixed price, but the vendor can earn additional incentives based on performance. This differs from a CPFF contract, as it is not focused on cost reimbursement or a fixed fee.
Option D, the Cost-Reimbursement with Incentive Fee (CPIF), allows the vendor to receive reimbursement for all allowable costs incurred during the project, plus an incentive fee that is tied to project performance. The vendor’s fee is generally based on cost savings, where they share in any savings achieved through cost control or efficient project management. However, the question specifically asks about a fixed fee based on projected costs, which aligns more closely with the CPFF model.
In conclusion, the Cost-Reimbursement with Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract is the correct answer, as it involves reimbursement for all approved costs along with a predetermined additional amount (the fixed fee) that is based on projected costs.
Question 4:
What law specifically governs the privacy rights of students and their families within educational institutions that benefit from federal financial assistance?
A. Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
B. Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA)
C. Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) is the law that specifically governs the privacy rights of students and their families within educational institutions that receive federal financial assistance. FERPA provides parents and eligible students (those over 18 or attending postsecondary institutions) with certain rights regarding the student’s educational records. These rights include the ability to inspect and review educational records, request amendments to incorrect records, and control the disclosure of personally identifiable information from these records.
FERPA is critical in ensuring the confidentiality and privacy of student data and allows educational institutions to share information only under certain circumstances, such as with the student's consent or in specific situations where the law requires it (e.g., for research, school officials, or certain governmental purposes).
Option A, the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), primarily governs the privacy of health information in the healthcare industry, not educational records. HIPAA sets standards for the protection of personal health information (PHI) by healthcare providers, health plans, and other covered entities, but it does not specifically apply to student educational records.
Option B, the Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA), is focused on protecting the privacy of children under the age of 13 online. It applies to websites and online services that collect information from children and requires parental consent for data collection. While it relates to online privacy, it does not cover the educational records of students, which is the focus of FERPA.
Option D, the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), pertains to the financial industry and governs the privacy of financial information. It requires financial institutions to establish privacy policies for protecting the personal financial information of individuals. GLBA does not specifically address student records or educational institutions.
In summary, FERPA is the law that governs the privacy rights of students and their families within educational institutions receiving federal financial assistance. It ensures the confidentiality of educational records and gives individuals control over how their personal information is shared.
Question 5:
Which term describes the deliberate manipulation of data during or just prior to its entry into a digital system with the objective of committing fraud?
A. Data tampering (Data diddling)
B. Communication wire interception (Wiretapping)
C. Unauthorized signal listening (Eavesdropping)
D. Identity or network impersonation (Spoofing)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The term Data tampering (Data diddling) refers to the deliberate manipulation of data during or just prior to its entry into a digital system with the intention of committing fraud or altering the data for malicious purposes. This action can take place in many contexts, such as altering transaction amounts, changing financial records, or modifying input data to deceive the system into processing incorrect or fraudulent information. Data tampering often occurs when someone with access to a system or data (such as an employee, insider, or hacker) alters the data before it is processed, typically without the knowledge of the intended recipient or the system itself.
This kind of fraud can be difficult to detect because it occurs early in the data's lifecycle, often before the data is reviewed or analyzed by authorized parties. The goal of data tampering is usually to gain financial advantage or to change records to cover up fraudulent activities.
Option B, Communication wire interception (Wiretapping), refers to the unauthorized monitoring or interception of communication signals—such as phone calls, internet traffic, or other data transmissions—while they are being sent over a network. While this is a type of cybercrime, it involves listening in on communications, not manipulating or altering data before it enters a system.
Option C, Unauthorized signal listening (Eavesdropping), is similar to wiretapping in that it refers to the unauthorized act of listening to or monitoring communications, often with the intent of gathering sensitive information. Eavesdropping is typically about surveillance, not about manipulating data itself.
Option D, Identity or network impersonation (Spoofing), involves the act of pretending to be someone or something else, usually to gain unauthorized access to systems or networks. In spoofing, the attacker fakes their identity or the identity of a trusted entity to deceive others into granting them access. Spoofing is not about manipulating data itself, but rather about impersonating another party or device to achieve unauthorized access or actions.
In conclusion, Data tampering (Data diddling) is the correct term as it specifically describes the manipulation of data before or during its entry into a system to commit fraud, aligning perfectly with the scenario in the question.
Question 6:
Which legal instrument provides inventors with exclusive rights over their inventions for a specific duration, as a trade-off for making their innovation details available to the public?
A. Government-granted Patent
B. Utility Protection Model
C. Surveillance Technique (Snooping)
D. Creative Work Protection (Copyright)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Government-granted Patent provides inventors with exclusive rights over their inventions for a specific duration, typically 20 years from the filing date of the patent application, as long as the inventor continues to meet certain legal requirements. In return for this exclusive right, which allows the inventor to prevent others from making, using, selling, or distributing the invention without permission, the inventor must disclose the details of the invention to the public. This disclosure is meant to encourage further innovation, as other inventors and companies can learn from the published details and build upon them once the patent expires.
This trade-off benefits the public by contributing to the body of knowledge and technology, while incentivizing inventors with the exclusive rights to profit from their innovation for a limited time. The key here is the exclusive rights granted for a specific period, with the requirement to publicly disclose the details of the invention.
Option B, the Utility Protection Model, is not a widely recognized or standard legal instrument in most countries. However, the term may refer to certain utility models used in some countries, which are similar to patents but typically provide a shorter term of protection and are often easier to obtain. These models are typically used for inventions that are not as technologically advanced as those protected by patents.
Option C, Surveillance Technique (Snooping), is unrelated to intellectual property and refers to methods of monitoring or intercepting communication, which are often associated with privacy and cybersecurity concerns. It does not provide legal protection for inventions.
Option D, Creative Work Protection (Copyright), pertains to the protection of artistic and literary works, such as books, music, software, and movies, rather than inventions. Copyright protects the expression of ideas (e.g., the text of a book or the melody of a song), but it does not cover inventions or processes. Copyright also does not require the disclosure of how the work is created, unlike patents.
In conclusion, the correct answer is the Government-granted Patent, as it provides inventors with exclusive rights to their inventions for a specific duration, in exchange for publicly disclosing the details of their innovation. This mechanism encourages both innovation and the dissemination of knowledge.
Question 7:
Mark serves as the head of security for SoftTech Inc. and is leading the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) portion of the firm’s continuity planning initiative. His focus is on evaluating how unplanned interruptions—like cyber threats, disasters, or outages—might financially and operationally affect essential business processes.
Which of the following are major goals of the BIA process? (Choose three)
A. Identifying essential resources
B. Ranking process criticality
C. Estimating acceptable downtimes
D. Conducting threat assessments
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
The Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a critical component of business continuity planning, helping organizations understand the financial and operational impact of disruptions to key business processes. Its primary goals are to evaluate the effects of unplanned interruptions and establish priorities for recovery. The BIA is focused on identifying business-critical functions, resources, and processes, and determining the potential consequences of business interruptions. The following options represent key goals of the BIA:
A. Identifying essential resources: A major goal of the BIA is to determine which resources (e.g., personnel, technology, data, equipment) are crucial for the continued operation of key business processes. Identifying these resources helps ensure that recovery plans prioritize the right assets to minimize disruption.
B. Ranking process criticality: The BIA helps assess and rank the criticality of various business processes. It identifies which processes are most vital to the organization’s continued operation and should therefore be prioritized for recovery during a disaster or disruption. This ranking helps in allocating resources efficiently during recovery efforts.
C. Estimating acceptable downtimes: The BIA also involves estimating the acceptable downtime for each critical process. This refers to the maximum amount of time a process can be non-operational before the organization faces significant financial or operational consequences. This information is used to establish Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs), which are key to recovery planning.
Option D, Conducting threat assessments, is typically part of a Risk Assessment rather than the BIA process. While threats (e.g., cyberattacks, natural disasters) are relevant to continuity planning, the threat assessment focuses more on identifying potential hazards and vulnerabilities, rather than analyzing the impact of disruptions on business operations. The BIA is more concerned with understanding the impact of such disruptions once they occur.
In conclusion, the major goals of the BIA process include identifying essential resources, ranking process criticality, and estimating acceptable downtimes. These goals help organizations understand which processes are most critical and plan accordingly for their recovery in the event of an interruption.
Question 8:
Which of the following roles is primarily responsible for ensuring that an organization’s cybersecurity controls align with its overall risk management and governance strategies?
A. Security Systems Analyst
B. Compliance Auditor
C. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
D. Data Protection Officer (DPO)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is the role primarily responsible for overseeing the cybersecurity strategy within an organization, ensuring that the security controls, policies, and practices are aligned with the organization’s overall risk management and governance strategies. The CISO works to ensure that security efforts support the organization's broader goals and meet legal, regulatory, and strategic requirements. The role typically involves leading the cybersecurity team, developing security policies, managing risks, and reporting to senior management on cybersecurity posture.
The CISO's responsibilities include identifying risks, implementing appropriate cybersecurity measures, ensuring compliance with laws and regulations, and ensuring that the organization's security framework is integrated into its overall governance structure. The CISO plays a critical role in ensuring that the organization is prepared to manage risks associated with cybersecurity threats while also contributing to the long-term security strategy of the organization.
Option A, the Security Systems Analyst, is responsible for the technical implementation and management of security systems, such as firewalls, intrusion detection/prevention systems, and other security technologies. While they play a key role in securing the organization’s systems, they are not primarily focused on aligning cybersecurity with risk management or governance strategies.
Option B, the Compliance Auditor, is focused on assessing and auditing an organization's compliance with external regulations and internal policies. Compliance auditors help ensure that the organization adheres to industry standards and regulations, but they are not directly responsible for aligning cybersecurity controls with risk management or governance strategies.
Option D, the Data Protection Officer (DPO), is responsible for ensuring that an organization adheres to data protection laws and regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). The DPO focuses primarily on data privacy and ensuring that personal data is processed in compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. While the DPO may interact with cybersecurity controls, their role is more focused on privacy and legal compliance rather than the broader alignment of cybersecurity with risk management.
In conclusion, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is the correct answer because this role is responsible for ensuring that cybersecurity controls align with the organization’s overall risk management and governance strategies, ensuring the integrity and security of the organization’s systems and data within the context of its broader objectives.
Question 9:
A project manager wants to ensure that deliverables meet contractual quality standards before they are accepted by the buyer. What project management process is best suited to handle this?
A. Scope Validation
B. Risk Response Planning
C. Work Breakdown Structuring
D. Procurement Closure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope Validation is the process that ensures the deliverables meet the contractual quality standards and are completed according to the project’s scope. In this process, the project manager and stakeholders (including the buyer) assess the deliverables to ensure that they meet the specified requirements outlined in the contract or project scope. If any issues or discrepancies are found, they can be addressed before final acceptance. Scope validation involves formal inspection and verification of deliverables, ensuring that they align with the project’s goals, quality standards, and specifications.
This process typically happens near the end of the project or during the handover phase, ensuring that the buyer’s expectations are met and that the deliverables are fit for their intended purpose before acceptance.
Option B, Risk Response Planning, focuses on identifying, analyzing, and planning for potential risks that could affect the project. This process is concerned with proactively addressing threats and opportunities, but it does not specifically focus on validating the quality of deliverables or ensuring they meet contractual requirements.
Option C, Work Breakdown Structuring (WBS), is the process of breaking down the project into smaller, more manageable components or tasks. It helps organize the work but does not directly address the quality control or validation of the deliverables. The WBS is part of the planning process and is not specifically focused on deliverable acceptance.
Option D, Procurement Closure, involves finalizing and closing out procurement activities. It includes verifying that all procurement items have been delivered as per the terms of the contract and ensuring that contractual obligations have been met. While it deals with ensuring that the deliverables meet the contract terms, it is more focused on closing out procurement contracts rather than validating the quality of the deliverables themselves.
In conclusion, Scope Validation is the correct process for ensuring that the project deliverables meet contractual quality standards before being accepted by the buyer. This process is directly aimed at ensuring the final deliverables align with the agreed-upon scope, quality, and contractual obligations.
Question 10:
Which term refers to a plan that outlines how an organization will recover IT systems and data after a catastrophic event?
A. Risk Mitigation Plan
B. Disaster Recovery Plan
C. Incident Response Plan
D. Data Integrity Framework
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) is a comprehensive plan that outlines the steps and procedures an organization must follow to recover its IT systems and data after a catastrophic event such as a natural disaster, cyberattack, or hardware failure. The goal of a DRP is to minimize downtime, restore operations as quickly as possible, and ensure that critical data and systems are recovered in a secure and efficient manner. This plan typically includes details such as backup procedures, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, and communication protocols to be followed during a disaster.
The DRP is a key component of the business continuity strategy, which focuses on ensuring the organization can continue operating despite significant disruptions to its IT infrastructure or operations. The plan should be tested regularly to ensure its effectiveness in real-world scenarios and should be continuously updated based on evolving threats and technological changes.
Option A, the Risk Mitigation Plan, is a broader strategy that focuses on identifying and minimizing potential risks to an organization. It may include strategies for managing risks related to financial, operational, or security aspects, but it is not specifically designed for recovering IT systems and data after a disaster.
Option C, the Incident Response Plan (IRP), focuses on the procedures for detecting, responding to, and mitigating the effects of security incidents or breaches, such as a cyberattack or data breach. While an IRP is critical for handling security-related events, it is distinct from a Disaster Recovery Plan, which specifically addresses the recovery of IT systems and data after a catastrophe.
Option D, the Data Integrity Framework, refers to a set of guidelines or practices that ensure the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data within an organization. While important for maintaining data quality, it does not provide a detailed strategy for recovering systems and data after a catastrophic event.
In conclusion, the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) is the correct term for a plan that outlines how an organization will recover its IT systems and data after a catastrophic event. This plan ensures that the organization can resume operations quickly and securely following a significant disruption.
