Salesforce Certified Advanced Administrator Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
The VP of Finance wants to ensure that once an opportunity is marked as "Closed," no users can make changes to it. What’s the best way an admin can enforce this?
A. Set up a workflow that marks the IsClosed field as True if a closed opportunity is edited
B. Assign the "Do Not Modify Closed Opportunity" permission to all user profiles
C. Make all fields read-only on the "Closed Opportunity" page layout
D. Use a validation rule: PRIORVALUE(IsClosed) = TRUE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best approach for ensuring that once an opportunity is marked as "Closed," no users can make changes to it is to use a validation rule. The rule PRIORVALUE(IsClosed) = TRUE checks the previous value of the IsClosed field before allowing any modifications. If the opportunity was already marked as Closed (i.e., IsClosed = TRUE), the validation rule will trigger and prevent users from saving changes to that opportunity.
The validation rule ensures that no changes are made to a Closed Opportunity, regardless of which fields are being edited. It is a strong enforcement of the requirement because it operates at the data level and works across all user profiles and page layouts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Set up a workflow that marks the IsClosed field as True if a closed opportunity is edited:
While this workflow might mark the field as True, it doesn't prevent users from editing the opportunity. The workflow can only update the field, but it doesn't provide any restriction on changes or block users from editing the opportunity. The goal is to prevent changes, not just automatically mark the field.
B. Assign the "Do Not Modify Closed Opportunity" permission to all user profiles:
There is no built-in "Do Not Modify Closed Opportunity" permission in Salesforce. While you can control access via profiles and permissions, this specific permission doesn't exist in Salesforce, so it wouldn't be the correct approach.
C. Make all fields read-only on the "Closed Opportunity" page layout:
While this would prevent users from editing fields on the page layout, it only applies at the UI level. It doesn't stop users from using other interfaces (e.g., API or data loaders) to make changes. The validation rule (Option D) is a more comprehensive solution because it works at the data validation level and prevents all forms of modification.
In conclusion, validation rules are the best method to enforce business logic and ensure that closed opportunities are protected from any changes.
Question 2
Which two statements about entitlement processes in Salesforce are true? (Select two)
A. Entitlements have unique organization-wide default (OWD) settings
B. Users need the "Manage Entitlements" permission to create them
C. Milestones can be dynamically created based on other field values
D. Versioning allows updates to existing entitlement processes
Correct Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Entitlement processes in Salesforce are used to define and track service level agreements (SLAs) for customers, including key milestones such as response time and resolution time. The following are the correct answers:
B. Users need the "Manage Entitlements" permission to create them:
In Salesforce, entitlement processes are managed through the Service Cloud. To create or manage these processes, users must have the "Manage Entitlements" permission. This permission is typically granted to system administrators or users responsible for setting up and maintaining service processes and entitlements.
D. Versioning allows updates to existing entitlement processes:
Versioning allows for updates and improvements to entitlement processes. It ensures that changes can be made to the process, while still maintaining the ability to use previous versions for historical reference. For example, if an entitlement process needs to be updated with new milestones or rules, a new version can be created, while existing records can continue to follow the previous version of the process.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Entitlements have unique organization-wide default (OWD) settings:
Entitlement processes are not governed by organization-wide default (OWD) settings. OWD settings control record visibility for standard objects such as Accounts or Opportunities, but entitlements follow different sharing rules that are more related to service contracts and cases. Thus, entitlement processes are not directly tied to OWD settings.
C. Milestones can be dynamically created based on other field values:
In Salesforce, milestones within entitlement processes are predefined and cannot be created dynamically based on field values. Milestones represent key goals or SLAs that need to be tracked in an entitlement process, and while they can be customized, their creation is not dynamic in response to other field values.
In conclusion, entitlement processes require specific permissions to create and support versioning for updates, making options B and D the correct answers.
Question 3
Universal Containers wants to automatically fill in the Billing State/Province field on accounts based on the entered postal code. Which two methods would support this requirement? (Select two)
A. Write a trigger that fetches the state from a custom postal code mapping object
B. Use a validation rule with a VLOOKUP function to map the postal code
C. Use a workflow to update the state based on postal code from a custom object
D. Use a validation rule with an HLOOKUP function to return the state
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
To automatically fill the Billing State/Province field based on the entered postal code, we need a method that can retrieve the state information based on the postal code input.
Option A suggests writing a trigger to fetch the state from a custom postal code mapping object. This is a solid solution because a trigger can be used to automatically update the Billing State/Province field whenever the postal code is entered or changed. The trigger would query the custom postal code mapping object, which would store the relationships between postal codes and corresponding states, and then populate the state field accordingly. This method is flexible and robust, allowing for updates in real time based on user input.
Option B mentions using a validation rule with a VLOOKUP function. This is not feasible because validation rules are used to enforce data integrity and ensure that entered data meets specific conditions. They cannot be used to look up values or update fields automatically. VLOOKUP and HLOOKUP functions are not supported in validation rules, which further makes this option invalid.
Option C suggests using a workflow to update the state based on the postal code from a custom object. While workflows can update fields based on certain criteria, they are limited to field updates and cannot perform complex lookups or queries like a trigger can. However, if the custom object is designed to hold a mapping of postal codes to states, a workflow can be triggered when a postal code is entered, which could use the relationship in the custom object to update the state field automatically.
Option D mentions using a validation rule with an HLOOKUP function. Similar to Option B, this option is not viable because validation rules cannot perform lookups or return values. HLOOKUP is used in formulas but is not supported in validation rules. Thus, this method would not work to fulfill the requirement.
Therefore, Option A and Option C are the correct answers, as both can enable the automatic population of the Billing State/Province field based on the entered postal code.
Question 4
When an opportunity’s stage is set to "Closed Lost," Universal Containers wants to make sure users provide a reason before saving. How should this be enforced?
A. Set a workflow to auto-populate the Reason Lost field when stage is "Closed Lost"
B. Use a validation rule to require Reason Lost when Stage = "Closed Lost"
C. Create a trigger to block saving unless Reason Lost is filled for Closed Lost
D. Make Reason Lost required on a separate page layout for Closed Lost opportunities
Answer: B
Explanation:
To enforce the requirement that a reason is provided when an opportunity’s stage is set to "Closed Lost," the most efficient and straightforward method is to use a validation rule.
Option A suggests setting a workflow to auto-populate the Reason Lost field when the stage is "Closed Lost." While this approach would help in automatically filling out the field, it does not ensure that the field is filled by the user. The requirement is that the user explicitly provides a reason, so auto-populating the field might not address the issue. Additionally, workflows cannot enforce data entry—they can only update fields automatically.
Option B is the best solution. By using a validation rule, you can ensure that the Reason Lost field is populated when the Stage field is set to "Closed Lost." The validation rule would check if the Reason Lost field is empty and trigger an error message if the condition is met (i.e., the stage is "Closed Lost" but the reason is not provided). This approach directly enforces the requirement and ensures that the field is filled before saving, which is the goal.
Option C suggests creating a trigger to block saving unless the Reason Lost field is filled. While triggers are powerful tools, they are more complex and typically used for business logic that cannot be achieved with declarative tools like validation rules. Creating a trigger for this use case would be more work than necessary, as the validation rule approach is both simpler and more efficient.
Option D proposes making the Reason Lost field required on a separate page layout for opportunities with a stage of "Closed Lost." While this option would ensure that the field is required when using that page layout, it would not enforce the requirement universally for all users or in all circumstances. If users had access to a different page layout or if a user forgot to switch to the correct layout, they might still be able to save the record without filling out the Reason Lost field.
Therefore, Option B is the correct approach, as it directly ensures that the Reason Lost field is populated when the stage is "Closed Lost," using a validation rule to enforce this condition.
Question 5
Universal Containers needs to track expense reports and their line items, and display a total from the line items on the parent report. What kind of relationship should be used?
A. Hierarchical
B. Master-detail
C. Lookup
D. Roll-up summary
Correct Answer :B
Explanation:
In Salesforce, a master-detail relationship is used when one object (the child) is dependent on the other (the parent), and when changes to the parent record can directly affect the child. This is ideal for situations like the one in the question, where expense reports (parent) need to have line items (child) that are tracked and a total value of those line items needs to be displayed on the parent record.
In a master-detail relationship, the child records inherit their security and ownership settings from the parent. Also, one of the key features of the master-detail relationship is the ability to use a roll-up summary field on the parent record, which allows for automatic calculation of values (such as the total of line item amounts) from related child records. This relationship type enables the automatic summing of values across related child records, which is the exact requirement here. Therefore, B is the correct choice.
Let’s break down the other options:
A. Hierarchical: A hierarchical relationship is a special type of relationship used only for the User object. It’s used to create a self-relationship where users can have a hierarchical reporting structure. This does not apply to tracking expense reports and line items.
C. Lookup: A lookup relationship is a more loosely defined relationship between two objects, where one object can reference another, but they are not as tightly linked as in a master-detail relationship. Lookup relationships do not allow for roll-up summary fields, making it unsuitable for this scenario where the total of line items needs to be calculated automatically on the parent report.
D. Roll-up summary: While a roll-up summary field is indeed part of what is needed in this situation, it is not itself a type of relationship. Roll-up summary fields are used in master-detail relationships to calculate and display aggregate values from related child records, such as a sum of line items. Therefore, a roll-up summary field is a feature to be used in conjunction with the master-detail relationship.
Question 6
A Salesforce admin wants to prevent users from deleting Account records that have related Opportunities in Closed Won. Which two features provide a declarative solution? (Choose 2.)
A. Validation Rule on the Account object
B. Apex Before-delete Trigger
C. Flow with a Record-Triggered “Fast Field Update”
D. Roll-up Summary Field combined with a Required Field
E. Custom Object Ownership-based Sharing Rule
Correct Answer :A and C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the goal is to prevent the deletion of Account records that have related Opportunities in a Closed Won stage. The best solution would involve declarative tools that allow for simple and straightforward configuration without needing to write code.
Let’s explore the two correct options:
A. Validation Rule on the Account object: A validation rule can be used to enforce business logic on the Account object. In this case, you can create a validation rule that checks whether any related Opportunities are in the Closed Won stage. If this condition is true, the validation rule would prevent users from deleting the Account record. Validation rules allow admins to set specific conditions for when actions, such as deletions, are allowed. This is a declarative solution, so it's the preferred option.
C. Flow with a Record-Triggered “Fast Field Update”: A Flow can be triggered when an Account record is being deleted, and it can perform additional checks, such as confirming whether there are any related Opportunities in the Closed Won stage. If such Opportunities exist, the Flow can prevent the deletion by updating a field or displaying an error message. This approach is declarative and allows the admin to design complex logic with clicks rather than code.
Let’s look at why the other options are not the best fit:
B. Apex Before-delete Trigger: Although an Apex trigger could be written to prevent deletion based on the related Opportunities, it’s not a declarative solution. Apex triggers require code and therefore do not meet the criteria for a no-code solution. It’s also more complex to implement and maintain compared to declarative methods like validation rules or flows.
D. Roll-up Summary Field combined with a Required Field: A roll-up summary field is used to aggregate values from related child records in a master-detail relationship. While it can be used to display information on the parent record, it doesn’t have the ability to prevent deletions. Additionally, roll-up summary fields are available only in master-detail relationships, which may not apply in this case.
E. Custom Object Ownership-based Sharing Rule: Sharing rules control record visibility based on ownership or other criteria but do not directly prevent deletions. While this could be useful for controlling access to records, it won’t prevent users from deleting an Account if they have access to it. Sharing rules are more about record access, not about preventing actions like deletions.
Therefore, the best declarative solutions are A (validation rule) and C (Flow with a record-triggered update).
Question 7
What are two features that Delegated Administration allows you to perform? (Choose 2)
A Reset passwords for users in specified roles
B Modify picklist values for any standard object
C Manage custom profiles and permission sets
D Unlock users who are assigned to specific roles
E Assign users to public groups and queues
Correct Answers: A and D
Explanation:
Delegated Administration is a powerful feature in Salesforce that allows system administrators to delegate certain administrative tasks to non-admin users without giving them full access to all administrative settings. The main goal of this feature is to decentralize user management and streamline administration within departments or business units.
Option A, which states that delegated administrators can reset passwords for users in specified roles, is correct. This is one of the key tasks that can be assigned through delegated administration. Admins can define which roles or groups of users a delegated admin can manage, and password resets are a standard part of those responsibilities. This helps reduce the burden on central IT or admin teams by enabling local user support.
Option D, unlocking users who are assigned to specific roles, is also correct. Similar to resetting passwords, delegated administrators can unlock user accounts that are locked due to failed login attempts. This ensures that minor user issues can be resolved more efficiently without escalating to full administrators.
Option B, which involves modifying picklist values for standard objects, is incorrect. Picklist management is considered a metadata-level change and is not available through delegated administration. Only users with full administrative rights can modify standard object picklists.
Option C, managing custom profiles and permission sets, is also incorrect. While delegated admins can assign existing profiles to users within their scope, they cannot create or manage profiles or permission sets. These are high-level security settings that require full administrative privileges.
Option E, assigning users to public groups and queues, is not permitted through delegated administration. While this task may be common in user management, it falls outside the scope of delegated capabilities. Only full system admins can create or assign users to public groups and queues.
In summary, delegated administration is useful for managing user-specific tasks such as password resets and unlocking accounts for certain roles, but it does not extend to customizing metadata like picklists or security settings like profiles, permission sets, or public groups. The intent is to balance flexibility and control by allowing some administrative tasks while protecting the system from unintended changes.
Question 8
When setting up Enterprise Territory Management (ETM), what are two necessary steps to complete before you can activate a Territory Model? (Choose 2)
A Create at least one Territory Type and Territory Type Priority
B Assign the “Territory 2 Model” permission set license to all sales reps
C Define Account Assignment Rules for each Territory
D Enable “Filter-based Opportunity Territory Assignment” in Setup
E Associate an API-enabled Share Group with the model
Correct Answers: A and C
Explanation:
Enterprise Territory Management (ETM) is Salesforce's modern framework for organizing sales teams based on geographical, product-based, or other business-defined territories. Before a territory model can be activated, certain foundational components must be in place to ensure the model can operate effectively within the platform.
Option A, creating at least one Territory Type and setting its priority, is correct. A Territory Type provides the blueprint for the territories in a model. It defines the general category of the territory, such as "Named Accounts" or "Geographical Region," and includes a priority which can be used to resolve conflicts in account assignments. This step is required before creating actual territories in a model, making it an essential first configuration task.
Option C, defining account assignment rules for each territory, is also required before activating a model. Account assignment rules determine how accounts are associated with territories based on specified criteria, such as billing state, industry, or custom fields. Without these rules, territories would have no defined accounts, rendering them ineffective. These rules ensure accounts are automatically placed into the correct territory when the model is evaluated.
Option B, assigning the "Territory 2 Model" permission set license to sales reps, is a possible step in user enablement but not a required configuration step before activating the model. While users do need the appropriate permissions to access territory records, the assignment of licenses or permission sets is a user-management step, not a prerequisite for model activation.
Option D, enabling "Filter-based Opportunity Territory Assignment," is an optional feature. It provides automatic assignment of opportunities to territories based on matching rules, but it is not mandatory to activate a territory model. You can activate a model without using this feature.
Option E, associating an API-enabled share group, is not a required configuration step. Share groups are used for extending access to records through external systems or API-enabled applications but are not part of the standard activation process for a territory model.
To summarize, before you can activate a territory model in ETM, you must first create territory types and assign priorities, and define account assignment rules to ensure that accounts are properly mapped. These are foundational components necessary for the model to function and distribute records correctly.
Question 9
Which two statements accurately describe the differences between Process Builder and Flow in Summer ’23 and later? (Choose 2)
A New Process Builder automation can still be created but is not future-proof; Flow is recommended
B Flows support “before-save” updates that do not invoke additional DML, reducing CPU time
C Process Builder can invoke sub-processes (like “Sub-flows”) while Flow cannot
D Flow supports “Run Asynchronously” paths, letting admins avoid mixed-DML errors
E Process Builder allows complex screen interactions; Flow does not have screen elements
Correct Answers: A and B
Explanation:
Salesforce has shifted its strategic direction toward Flow as the primary declarative automation tool, phasing out legacy tools such as Workflow Rules and Process Builder. As of Summer ’23 and beyond, understanding the capabilities and limitations of each tool is crucial for building efficient and scalable automations.
Option A is correct. Although Process Builder is still technically available for use, Salesforce has clearly communicated that it is no longer being enhanced and will eventually be deprecated. New automation should be built using Flow, as it is the future-proof solution. Flow is more powerful, flexible, and is the only tool receiving continuous improvements. Existing Process Builder processes will continue to work, but Salesforce has provided a migration path to Flow and recommends all new automation be created in Flow.
Option B is also correct. Flow supports “before-save” record-triggered flows, which execute prior to a record being saved to the database. These flows allow fields to be updated without triggering additional DML statements, which makes them significantly more efficient in terms of CPU time and governor limits. This is a feature that Process Builder does not have. Process Builder always triggers after a record has been saved, which results in extra DML operations for updates, contributing to performance issues in complex automations.
Option C is incorrect. Process Builder can invoke Flows, but it cannot call another Process Builder process. Flow, on the other hand, can invoke sub-flows, making it more modular and reusable. This modularity allows for better automation architecture and reuse of logic across different automations.
Option D is incorrect. While asynchronous processing is possible in Flow through elements like “Scheduled Paths” or “Pause” elements, Process Builder also supports asynchronous actions such as time-based actions. However, neither tool completely avoids mixed-DML errors without additional considerations. The new “Run Asynchronously” path is not a Flow feature that automatically avoids all mixed-DML errors.
Option E is incorrect because Process Builder does not support screen elements at all. Flow does. Specifically, Screen Flows are a type of Flow designed to create guided user experiences with interactive screen components. This makes Flow the only declarative tool that allows custom screen interactions without writing code.
To summarize, Flow has become the dominant and recommended tool due to its enhanced performance, flexibility (like before-save updates), and support for modern automation standards. Admins should begin migrating away from Process Builder and familiarize themselves with Flow’s full capabilities.
Question 10
An administrator must track field-level changes to Case records for up to ten years to comply with auditing policies. Which two Salesforce features can fulfill this requirement without needing custom code? (Choose 2)
A Field History Tracking combined with Field Audit Trail add-on
B Event Monitoring Log Files stored in Big Objects
C Setup Audit Trail downloaded and archived externally
D Enterprise-grade Shield Platform Encryption
E Case Feed Tracking with “Chatter Compliance Exports”
Correct Answers: A and C
Explanation:
Tracking data changes for extended periods, especially for compliance and audit purposes, is a common requirement in industries with strict regulatory frameworks. Salesforce offers various tools for auditing, each with specific use cases and limitations. For the scenario of monitoring Case field changes over a 10-year period, two particular solutions stand out.
Option A is correct. Field History Tracking by itself retains changes for only 18 months in the org and up to 24 months via the API. However, when combined with the Field Audit Trail add-on (part of Salesforce Shield), admins can store field history for up to 10 years in a Big Object. This makes it the ideal solution for long-term audit logging of field-level changes. Field Audit Trail allows you to specify which fields to retain, for how long, and ensures the data is immutable — meeting most compliance standards.
Option C is also correct. Setup Audit Trail captures changes made to configuration and setup, but not field-level data changes. However, the trail can be downloaded regularly and archived externally. By maintaining a regular download and archiving schedule (e.g., monthly or quarterly exports), admins can effectively maintain a multi-year audit trail of configuration changes without writing any code. While this doesn't cover record-level changes, it satisfies auditing needs for administrative activity over long durations.
Option B is incorrect because Event Monitoring logs are focused on user activity (like login history, API usage, report exports) and do not include field change history. While logs can be stored in Big Objects for extended retention, they are not designed to track field-level changes on standard or custom objects like Cases.
Option D is also incorrect. Shield Platform Encryption secures data at rest, making it unreadable to unauthorized parties, but it does not offer any logging or audit functionality. Encryption ensures data privacy and security, but it does not fulfill the requirement to track changes.
Option E is misleading. Case Feed Tracking enables visual tracking of updates in the case feed and Chatter Compliance Exports support exporting Chatter content for monitoring, but they are not designed to archive structured field-level changes over long periods. Furthermore, feed tracking is not a replacement for formal audit tools and lacks completeness for long-term regulatory storage.
In summary, to meet the 10-year audit requirement for Case field changes, admins should leverage Field Audit Trail (with Field History Tracking) and Setup Audit Trail exports. Together, they provide comprehensive and compliant coverage for both data and setup change tracking over extended timeframes.
