ISC CAP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
Neil, a project manager at SoftTech Inc., has already used a qualitative approach to classify risks into categories like high, medium, and low based on their likelihood and impact. When Tom, the COO, asks about other objective methods for grouping or organizing these risks to manage them more effectively.
What is the most appropriate way Neil could respond?
A. Risks could be ordered based on how soon they require a response
B. Risks might be grouped into types such as technical, organizational, or external
C. Risks can be arranged according to their planned responses and further evaluation
D. Risks may be ranked separately for their effect on cost, time, and project outcomes
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
When considering how to effectively group or organize project risks beyond simple qualitative rankings like high, medium, and low, it is helpful to turn to objective, impact-specific criteria. This ensures that each risk is evaluated from different angles, offering a more comprehensive understanding of how it might influence the project. Among the choices provided, the most effective and objective approach is to rank risks separately based on their impact on cost, time, and overall project outcomes, as indicated in option D.
By using this method, Neil can move from generalized risk categories into a quantitative or semi-quantitative framework, where each risk is assessed not just by its severity but also by which project constraint it affects most significantly. For example, a risk may pose a moderate threat to the timeline but could have a major cost implication. Separating the evaluation this way allows stakeholders like Tom to prioritize mitigation strategies more effectively based on specific project goals and tolerances.
Let's look at why the other options are less suitable:
A, ordering risks based on how soon they require a response, could certainly be helpful from a scheduling or urgency standpoint, but it doesn't necessarily add objectivity or enhance understanding of the nature of each risk. It simply shifts focus to timing, not impact or type.
B, grouping risks into types like technical, organizational, or external, is another useful method, often seen in risk breakdown structures (RBS). However, while this method helps in categorizing the origin of risks, it is more qualitative in nature and doesn’t always convey the severity or urgency of those risks in terms of project deliverables.
C, arranging risks based on planned responses and further evaluation, deals with the risk response strategy phase, which comes after prioritization. This choice also doesn’t help organize risks objectively in a way that improves initial decision-making.
Only D provides an analytical structure that can assist in objective decision-making, enabling the team to understand which risks have the most significant potential effects in cost, schedule, or scope. It also aligns well with widely used frameworks like the triple constraint model in project management, which emphasizes managing trade-offs between these three critical areas.
This kind of classification allows for multi-dimensional risk prioritization, which is especially valuable in complex projects where not all risks are equal in every domain. For instance, a particular technical risk might be less likely to happen but could result in a high cost overrun. Recognizing this early helps the team allocate resources where they are needed most.
In summary, while all the other approaches offer some value, option D is the most comprehensive and objective way to enhance risk prioritization. It supports informed decisions and ensures that mitigation efforts align directly with the project's key performance indicators.
Question 2:
Access control plays a vital role in safeguarding data, systems, and physical spaces by ensuring that only authorized individuals can gain access. One of the most common methods in the IT world involves using login credentials such as usernames and passwords to authenticate users.
What category of access control does this type of credential-based verification fall under?
A. Managerial
B. Logical (Technical)
C. Electrical
D. Physical Security
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The use of usernames and passwords as a way to control access to digital systems falls under the category of Logical (Technical) access control. This type of control is designed to regulate access to computer systems and data through technological means rather than physical barriers or organizational policies.
Logical access controls include authentication mechanisms such as passwords, PINs, biometric scans, and multifactor authentication. These controls ensure that only users with the proper credentials can enter a system or access specific information. The idea is to validate who the user is (authentication) before granting access to systems or data, and potentially even what that user is allowed to do (authorization) once inside.
Let's look at why the other choices are incorrect:
A, Managerial, refers to administrative or procedural controls. These involve policies, procedures, and guidelines created by an organization to manage security. While managerial controls may include rules about password complexity or how frequently they should be changed, the act of using a password to log in is not a managerial control itself. It is a technical implementation of a security policy.
C, Electrical, is not a standard access control category within information security. This term generally applies to power or circuitry systems and has no relevance in this context. It might confuse the use of technology or electricity with actual access control mechanisms, which would be misleading.
D, Physical Security, involves tangible barriers such as locked doors, security guards, fences, and biometric scanners at entry points. These methods are used to restrict physical access to locations like server rooms or office buildings. While important, they are clearly not the type of control used when entering a password on a login screen from any location.
To summarize, Logical (Technical) access controls are implemented directly within the system and are responsible for authenticating and authorizing users using digital tools. Passwords and usernames fall squarely into this category, as they are used within software systems to manage access rights. These controls are critical to enforcing confidentiality, a core principle in cybersecurity, by ensuring that only authorized users can access sensitive information.
In contrast, managerial controls provide the rules, physical controls establish the barriers, and technical (logical) controls like usernames and passwords enforce the rules in digital environments. This layered approach—known as defense in depth—is common in cybersecurity strategies, but when it comes to credential-based access to information systems, logical controls are the category under which those measures are implemented.
Question 3:
During a project team’s risk identification session, some risks are recognized as having a low probability of occurring and a minimal impact on project objectives. These risks are not expected to pose significant threats to the schedule, cost, quality, or scope.
What is the most appropriate way to manage these low-priority risks?
A. Accept these risks as they are
B. Add them to a watch list for low-priority risks
C. Develop and document a response plan for all identified risks
D. Exclude them entirely from the risk management plan
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
In the process of managing project risks, not all identified risks require immediate action or detailed mitigation planning. Risks that are assessed as low likelihood and low impact are typically not prioritized for full response strategies due to their minimal threat to the project's success. Instead, the most appropriate approach is to monitor them over time, and that is precisely the purpose of a risk watch list—which makes option B the best choice.
A watch list is a component of the risk register that is specifically used to document low-priority risks. These are risks that don't warrant a full risk response at the moment but should still be kept visible in case their likelihood or impact changes over the course of the project. Maintaining awareness of these risks ensures that the project team is not blindsided if conditions evolve that make a previously minor risk more serious. This approach reflects proactive risk management without wasting resources on issues that are currently not impactful.
Now, let’s examine why the other options are less appropriate:
A, accepting the risks as they are, might seem reasonable, and in many cases, low-impact risks are accepted as a response strategy. However, simply accepting a risk and taking no action at all can be dangerous if the risk changes over time. Without being placed on a watch list, the team might forget the risk entirely. Therefore, the more effective action is to accept the risk and add it to a watch list, which maintains awareness while avoiding unnecessary planning effort.
C, developing and documenting a response plan for all identified risks, is an inefficient use of project resources. One of the goals of risk prioritization is to allocate resources where they’re most needed, focusing attention on medium- and high-priority risks. Trying to create full response plans for every minor risk would lead to administrative overload and dilute the team’s focus from critical threats.
D, excluding them entirely from the risk management plan, is unwise and contradicts standard risk management practices. While these risks are low priority now, they are still risks, and their potential impact could change as the project progresses. Ignoring them completely removes any chance of monitoring or reassessment. Proper risk management includes tracking even low-priority risks in a minimal, efficient way—hence, placing them on a watch list.
In summary, the best approach for managing risks that are both unlikely and would have minimal consequences is to acknowledge their existence while avoiding unnecessary response planning. A watch list is the ideal tool for this purpose, as it keeps the project team informed without overcommitting time and resources. This method reflects sound risk governance, allows flexibility for reassessment, and maintains visibility over the full spectrum of project uncertainties.
Question 4:
In your project, a key machine must remain below 450°F to avoid overheating, which would lead to a two-day shutdown and cause project delays. To prevent this, your team chooses to temporarily shut the machine down when it hits 430°F, allowing it to cool before reaching the critical temperature.
What is the correct term for the 430°F temperature point that signals a potential risk is about to occur?
A. Risk recognition
B. Risk response planning
C. Risk trigger
D. Risk occurrence
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The 430°F temperature threshold described in the scenario is best classified as a risk trigger. A risk trigger is a specific event or condition that signals that a risk may soon occur. It acts as an early warning sign, allowing the project team to take preemptive action before the actual risk event causes harm or disruption to the project. In this case, reaching 430°F is not yet the risk event (which is the machine overheating at 450°F), but it indicates that the system is approaching a dangerous threshold.
Using this trigger point, the team can respond proactively—by shutting the machine down temporarily—before the temperature reaches the 450°F danger zone that would cause a 48-hour shutdown. This kind of planning is a hallmark of effective risk monitoring and control, allowing teams to identify when a risk is imminent and apply their risk response strategies in time to minimize impact.
Let’s evaluate why the other options do not fit as well:
A, Risk recognition, refers to the process of initially identifying risks. This is generally done in the early stages of risk management, such as during risk identification workshops or brainstorming sessions. It does not relate to the use of real-time indicators or thresholds that warn of risk emergence during project execution.
B, Risk response planning, is the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats. While planning to shut down the machine at 430°F would fall under this category, the term "risk response planning" refers to the creation of a strategy, not to the specific indicator or threshold itself. The actual 430°F value is a result of the planning, but it's technically referred to as a trigger.
D, Risk occurrence, refers to the moment when the risk actually happens—in this case, when the machine exceeds 450°F and overheats. The scenario makes it clear that 430°F is used to prevent the risk from occurring. Therefore, this option is incorrect because the risk has not yet materialized.
To summarize, a risk trigger is a key element of any robust risk management system. It allows the project team to detect warning signs early, so they can act before damage is done. By identifying and monitoring such triggers, project managers improve their ability to control negative outcomes and ensure smoother project execution. In this case, using the 430°F threshold as a risk trigger enables the team to avoid costly delays and maintain the project timeline. Thus, among the given choices, the most accurate and technically correct answer is C.
Question 5:
Adrian is overseeing a project that includes high-risk electrical installation tasks. Recognizing the safety hazards and the specialized skills required, Adrian decides to hire a licensed professional contractor to handle this work instead of using internal team members.
What kind of risk response strategy is Adrian applying by outsourcing this portion of the project?
A. Risk reduction
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk elimination
D. Risk acceptance
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The decision Adrian makes—to hire a licensed external professional for electrical installation tasks—is a textbook example of risk transfer. In project risk management, risk transfer involves shifting the responsibility for managing a risk to a third party, typically through outsourcing, insurance, or contracting. While the risk itself is not removed or eliminated, its management and consequences are assigned to someone better equipped or contractually obligated to handle it.
In this case, the electrical work presents a high level of risk, primarily due to safety concerns and the need for technical expertise. Instead of having internal team members—who may lack the necessary skills or certifications—handle the work, Adrian chooses to contract a licensed professional, likely under a formal agreement. By doing this, Adrian is transferring not only the task but also the associated risk and liability to the contractor. This is particularly important in industries like construction, electrical engineering, or hazardous material handling, where mistakes can have serious consequences.
Let’s examine the other choices to understand why they are not the best fit:
A, Risk reduction, refers to taking action to lower either the probability of a risk occurring or its impact if it does. While outsourcing to a professional might incidentally reduce the likelihood of errors due to their expertise, the defining feature here is that the responsibility and liability are being handed off—not just minimized. Therefore, this is better described as risk transfer than simple reduction.
C, Risk elimination, or risk avoidance, means altering the project plan to completely remove the risk. This might involve canceling the task altogether, changing the technology used, or eliminating the need for electrical work entirely. In Adrian's case, the work is still being performed—it is just being done by someone else—so the risk is not eliminated but reassigned.
D, Risk acceptance, means that the project manager decides to do nothing proactive about the risk and simply accepts it should it occur. This might be appropriate for low-priority risks or when the cost of mitigating the risk outweighs the potential impact. In this scenario, however, Adrian is taking deliberate action to manage the risk by outsourcing, which disqualifies this as a case of risk acceptance.
In summary, outsourcing hazardous or specialized work like electrical installation is a classic form of risk transfer, allowing the project to proceed while reducing the burden of risk on the project team. The contractor, bound by expertise and legal obligations, assumes responsibility for managing those risks. This is a prudent and strategic move in project management when facing high-impact or high-complexity risks. Hence, the correct answer is B.
Question 6:
James works at SoftTech Inc. and is tasked with safeguarding organizational data. His responsibilities include conducting routine backups, confirming their reliability, restoring data as necessary, and ensuring the organization's data storage and retention policies are followed. Given these duties.
What is James’s role in terms of data and information security?
A. Information Manager
B. End User
C. Data Owner
D. Data Custodian
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
James’s set of responsibilities—performing regular data backups, testing them for reliability, restoring data when needed, and ensuring adherence to storage and retention policies—clearly aligns with the role of a Data Custodian in the field of information security and data governance.
A Data Custodian is responsible for the technical and operational management of data. This includes activities such as:
Performing data backups and restorations
Managing data storage systems and ensuring their availability
Enforcing data retention and storage policies
Ensuring data is properly archived and recoverable
Implementing safeguards such as access controls and encryption (in some cases)
James is not making decisions about who can access data or what data is stored—his responsibilities lie in the implementation and maintenance of those decisions, which are set by other roles such as the Data Owner.
Let’s clarify why the other options are incorrect:
A, Information Manager, is a somewhat ambiguous term and not a standard role in data governance frameworks. While some organizations may use this title to refer to a person involved in overall information lifecycle management, James’s responsibilities are far more technical and specific. His work is not managerial in the strategic or policy-setting sense.
B, End User, refers to individuals who consume or use the data in their day-to-day work. End users typically interact with applications, read reports, or use business intelligence tools, but they do not manage the storage, backup, or restoration of data. Since James performs technical tasks related to data protection, he does not fit into this category.
C, Data Owner, is someone who holds accountability for data. The data owner is responsible for determining who has access to data, setting classification levels, and defining policies for how data should be handled. They often collaborate with data custodians to ensure policies are enforced. However, they do not typically perform the hands-on technical work that James is doing.
D, Data Custodian, fits James’s role perfectly. Data custodians are typically IT professionals or system administrators who manage the infrastructure that supports data operations. They implement the controls set by data owners, including ensuring data is backed up properly and remains compliant with storage and retention regulations.
In conclusion, James fulfills the duties of a Data Custodian, a role critical to operational data protection and integrity. This position requires technical expertise and attention to policy compliance, ensuring that organizational data remains secure, recoverable, and properly maintained over time. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
Question 7:
In systems such as Windows, file and directory access is governed through security settings known as Discretionary Access Control Lists (DACLs). These DACLs determine which users or groups can interact with an object and what operations (like read, write, or execute) they are authorized to perform.
What is the name of each individual record inside a DACL that defines permissions for a specific user or group?
A. Access Control Entry (ACE)
B. Discretionary Access Rule (DAR)
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Security Identity (SID)
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
In Microsoft Windows and other access-controlled systems, a Discretionary Access Control List (DACL) is a component of an object’s security descriptor. It contains a list of Access Control Entries (ACEs), each of which defines permissions for a specific user or group. Therefore, the correct term for an individual entry in a DACL is Access Control Entry (ACE), making option A the correct answer.
An Access Control Entry (ACE) specifies several key pieces of information:
The Security Identifier (SID) for a user or group
The type of access allowed (such as read, write, execute) or denied
Whether the entry is used for allowing or denying access
In some cases, inheritance flags that control how permissions propagate to child objects
Each DACL can contain multiple ACEs, and the system processes them in order when a user attempts to access the object. This is what enables fine-grained control over who can do what with specific files, folders, or other securable objects in Windows systems.
Now let’s evaluate the incorrect options:
B, Discretionary Access Rule (DAR), is not a recognized or standardized term in Windows security or access control models. It sounds plausible but does not exist in the official Microsoft or broader access control terminology. This makes it a distractor with no technical basis.
C, Access Control List (ACL), refers to the entire list of access permissions associated with an object. In Windows, ACLs are categorized into two types:
DACLs, which specify who can access the object and what operations they are allowed to perform.
SACLs, which specify auditing rules—who gets logged when accessing the object.
So while a DACL is a kind of ACL, and it contains ACEs, the individual record is not called an ACL; that term applies to the whole list.
D, Security Identity (SID), is a unique identifier assigned to users, groups, and other security principals in Windows environments. An SID identifies who a given ACE applies to, but it is not itself an access control record. Rather, it’s a component within an ACE, used to tie permissions to a specific entity.
In summary, within a Discretionary Access Control List (DACL), each line item that outlines what access is granted or denied to a user or group is called an Access Control Entry (ACE). These ACEs are critical to implementing fine-grained, role-based, and secure access control in modern operating systems. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 8:
You are evaluating two risk management solutions for a project: one managed internally and the other outsourced to a vendor. The internal option requires an upfront investment of $578,000 with a monthly maintenance cost of $12,000, while the vendor solution requires a smaller upfront cost of $550,000 but a higher monthly fee of $14,500.
After how many months will the cumulative cost of the internal solution become less than that of the vendor solution, making it the more cost-effective choice?
A. Roughly 13 months
B. Close to 11 months
C. About 15 months
D. Around 8 months
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
To determine after how many months the internal solution becomes more cost-effective than the vendor solution, we need to calculate the total cost of each solution over time and identify the point where the internal solution’s cumulative cost drops below that of the vendor solution.
Let’s define the costs mathematically for each solution:
Internal Solution:
Upfront cost: $578,000
Monthly cost: $12,000
Total cost after xxx months:
Cinternal=578,000+12,000xC_{\text{internal}} = 578,000 + 12,000xCinternal=578,000+12,000x
Vendor Solution:
Upfront cost: $550,000
Monthly cost: $14,500
Total cost after xxx months:
Cvendor=550,000+14,500xC_{\text{vendor}} = 550,000 + 14,500xCvendor=550,000+14,500x
We are looking for the point where:
578,000+12,000x<550,000+14,500x578,000 + 12,000x < 550,000 + 14,500x578,000+12,000x<550,000+14,500x
Now solve for xxx:
578,000+12,000x<550,000+14,500x578,000 + 12,000x < 550,000 + 14,500x578,000+12,000x<550,000+14,500x
Subtract 550,000550,000550,000 from both sides:
28,000+12,000x<14,500x28,000 + 12,000x < 14,500x28,000+12,000x<14,500x
Subtract 12,000x12,000x12,000x from both sides:
28,000<2,500x28,000 < 2,500x28,000<2,500x
Now divide both sides by 2,500:
x>11.2x > 11.2x>11.2
This means that after 11.2 months, the internal solution starts to become cheaper than the vendor solution. Since we can’t have a fractional month in practical project budgeting (unless doing a prorated analysis), the switch point will occur at the beginning of month 12, but the total cumulative cost will be lower sometime during the 12th month.
Therefore, the internal solution becomes more cost-effective shortly after 11 months, and by the time month 13 concludes, the cost difference will have clearly favored the internal approach.
Now let’s review the answer options:
A. Roughly 13 months — This is accurate. After crossing the 11.2-month threshold, costs continue to diverge in favor of the internal solution.
B. Close to 11 months — This slightly underestimates the breakeven point; it occurs just after 11 months.
C. About 15 months — Too late; the internal option is already cheaper by then.
D. Around 8 months — Too early; the vendor solution is still less expensive up to the 11th month.
The breakeven point occurs just after 11.2 months, meaning the internal solution becomes definitively more cost-effective by around month 13. Thus, the correct answer is A.
Question 9:
One of the core principles of information security is designed to ensure that data stays accurate and unaltered unless modified by authorized personnel. This principle is crucial in protecting critical information like financial records and sensitive health data from tampering or unauthorized changes.
Which principle addresses this concern?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Accountability (Non-repudiation)
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
The principle that focuses on ensuring data remains accurate, complete, and unmodified unless changed through authorized means is known as Integrity. In the context of information security, integrity guarantees that information has not been altered, either maliciously or accidentally, and that it can be trusted as authentic and reliable.
This concept is one of the three foundational pillars of information security, commonly referred to as the CIA Triad:
Confidentiality (C): Protects data from unauthorized access
Integrity (I): Ensures data is accurate and unaltered
Availability (A): Ensures authorized users can access data when needed
When organizations handle sensitive data such as medical records, financial statements, or legal documents, maintaining integrity is essential. Any unauthorized modification—whether intentional (e.g., cyberattack) or unintentional (e.g., software bug)—could have serious legal, financial, or ethical consequences. For instance, if a patient’s medication dosage is altered in a hospital system due to a data integrity failure, the result could be life-threatening.
Methods for ensuring data integrity include:
Checksums and hash functions to detect changes in data
Access controls to ensure only authorized users can modify data
Audit logs that track who made what changes and when
Digital signatures to verify authenticity and integrity
Version control systems to preserve original and updated data sets
Now let’s review why the other options are incorrect:
A, Confidentiality, is focused on restricting access to sensitive information so that only authorized individuals can view or retrieve it. While it is an essential principle in protecting privacy and secrecy, it does not address whether the data is accurate or unmodified.
B, Availability, ensures that data and systems are accessible when needed by authorized users. This is especially important in environments like hospitals or financial institutions where downtime can cause major disruptions. However, availability doesn’t guarantee that the data itself is correct or tamper-free.
D, Accountability (Non-repudiation), refers to the assurance that someone cannot deny their actions. For example, if a user sends a signed email, non-repudiation ensures they cannot later claim they didn’t send it. This is about tracing actions to responsible parties, not maintaining the accuracy or consistency of data itself.
In conclusion, integrity is the principle directly concerned with preserving the correctness, reliability, and trustworthiness of data. It is fundamental to information security and critical in any context where data must be protected from unauthorized or unintentional modifications. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Question 10:
You are managing a project and need to present stakeholders with a clear visual representation of the resources—such as people, tools, and materials—that will be involved, along with how they relate to the different project components. The aim is to ensure all project needs are covered and facilitate planning.
Which chart is best for this purpose?
A. Task Breakdown Structure
B. Resource Breakdown Structure
C. RACI Matrix
D. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is the best tool for presenting a detailed, visual breakdown of all the resources (e.g., human resources, tools, equipment, materials) required for a project. It organizes and categorizes resources in a hierarchical manner, which is crucial for identifying and ensuring the correct distribution of resources across various project tasks and components. By using an RBS, project managers can effectively plan, allocate, and monitor the availability and utilization of resources throughout the project lifecycle.
The RBS directly addresses the need to show resource allocation in relation to project activities. This makes it an ideal choice for illustrating how different resources are assigned to various elements of the project. It helps ensure that all aspects of the project have the resources they need and supports resource management strategies like balancing workloads and avoiding overallocation.
Now, let’s explore why the other options are less suitable:
A, Task Breakdown Structure (TBS), is a tool used to break down the project’s tasks or deliverables into smaller, manageable components. It organizes work into discrete tasks, but it does not specifically address resource allocation or distribution. While it is useful for defining the scope of work, it does not show the breakdown of the resources needed for each task.
C, RACI Matrix, is a responsibility assignment tool that defines roles and responsibilities for various stakeholders in relation to project tasks. The RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed) Matrix clarifies who is responsible for what actions but does not directly visualize the distribution or types of resources required for tasks. It focuses more on clarifying roles than on managing physical or material resources.
D, Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), is similar to the RACI Matrix, though it specifically links people to tasks or deliverables. While a RAM helps clarify who is responsible for completing each task, it does not show the resources (like equipment or materials) necessary for those tasks. It is focused on people and roles, not the overall resource management required for the project.
In summary, the Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is the best option for presenting a visual, organized view of all the resources required for a project. It aligns with your goal of illustrating resource allocation and ensuring that the project has everything it needs for successful execution. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
