SY0-701 CompTIA Security Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
A company wants to enhance the security of its public-facing applications by encouraging external parties to identify vulnerabilities. These individuals will be rewarded financially for any valid findings.
What is the correct term for this type of initiative?
A. Open-source intelligence
B. Bug bounty
C. Red team
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The initiative described is known as a bug bounty program. In such programs, organizations publicly invite external security researchers—often referred to as ethical hackers—to search for vulnerabilities in their applications or systems. These researchers are financially rewarded based on the severity and impact of the issues they discover. This model benefits companies by crowd-sourcing security testing from a wide pool of global experts.
Unlike penetration testing or red teaming, which involve scheduled assessments carried out by internal teams or contracted professionals under specific parameters, bug bounty programs are typically open-ended. They allow independent researchers to submit vulnerabilities at any time. This can result in faster identification of issues and a more robust security posture over time.
Open-source intelligence (OSINT), in contrast, is focused on gathering publicly available data for analysis and is not primarily used to discover technical vulnerabilities in systems or applications. OSINT also typically does not involve compensation for discoveries.
A red team simulates real-world attacks to test an organization’s detection and response capabilities but operates under strict internal guidelines. Therefore, the company’s initiative aligns most closely with a bug bounty program, making B the correct answer.
Question No 2:
Which category of threat actor is most likely to possess substantial financial and technological resources, often used to launch cyber-attacks against critical infrastructure in foreign countries?
A. Insider
B. Unskilled attacker
C. Nation-state
D. Hacktivist
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Nation-state actors represent government-backed or state-sponsored groups that engage in cyber operations to further political, military, or economic agendas. These actors are distinguished by their access to extensive financial resources, cutting-edge tools, and highly trained personnel. Their targets often include critical infrastructure such as power grids, telecommunications systems, banking networks, and military assets in other nations.
These attacks are typically highly sophisticated and strategically coordinated, aiming to cause disruption, gather intelligence, or exert geopolitical pressure. For example, advanced persistent threats (APTs) are often associated with nation-state groups because of their complexity and long-term objectives.
In contrast:
Insiders may pose a threat from within an organization, either maliciously or unintentionally, but they generally lack broad resources or international reach.
Unskilled attackers, also known as script kiddies, rely on pre-made tools and lack the expertise or capability to launch complex, infrastructure-level attacks.
Hacktivists are ideologically driven and may target systems to protest or make statements, but they typically lack the funding and support that nation-state groups possess.
Given their capabilities and intent, nation-states are the most likely actors to conduct large-scale cyber-attacks on foreign infrastructure, making C the correct choice.
Question No 3:
What type of cyberattack involves manipulating input fields on a website to inject unauthorized database commands that could read, alter, or destroy data?
A. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
B. Side loading
C. Buffer overflow
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
SQL Injection (SQLi) is a serious web security vulnerability that allows attackers to interfere with the queries an application makes to its database. This typically occurs when a web application accepts user input—such as through login forms or search fields—without properly validating or sanitizing it.
Attackers can manipulate the input to inject malicious SQL code, which the database then executes. For example, an attacker could input:
Because '1'='1' is always true, the query could return all user accounts and allow unauthorized access.
SQL injection can result in:
Unauthorized access to sensitive information
Modification or deletion of database records
In some cases, full control over the database server
In contrast:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) affects users by injecting scripts into web pages but doesn't directly target databases.
Side loading refers to the installation of applications from unofficial sources, unrelated to database manipulation.
Buffer overflow exploits memory management flaws to run arbitrary code but operates at a lower system level, not within SQL queries.
Due to its direct impact on the integrity and confidentiality of data, SQL injection is one of the most critical vulnerabilities, listed in the OWASP Top 10. Therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question No 4:
Employees in the Research and Development (R&D) division of a company undergo extensive training on safeguarding information, with a strong focus on confidentiality, integrity, and security. Their responsibilities include working on innovation, designing products, and advancing technology.
Which category of data are they most likely to engage with during their routine tasks?
A. Encrypted data
B. Intellectual property
C. Critical data
D. Data in transit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Professionals working in Research and Development (R&D) are primarily involved in creating, improving, and innovating products, services, and technologies. As a result, the most relevant and frequently handled type of information in this context is Intellectual Property (IP).
Intellectual Property encompasses proprietary knowledge such as blueprints, engineering designs, formulas, source code, product concepts, patents, trademarks, and trade secrets. These assets are considered strategic company resources, often forming the foundation for competitive advantage and future revenue. Because of the highly sensitive and valuable nature of IP, organizations enforce strict data protection practices in R&D to prevent espionage, unauthorized disclosure, or loss.
While other types of data like Encrypted Data, Critical Data, and Data in Transit are important in overall information security:
Encrypted data is a security method, not a data type, used to protect sensitive information.
Critical data refers to any information vital to operations, which may or may not include IP.
Data in transit represents any kind of data actively moving through networks, including but not limited to IP.
These types are broader and apply across multiple departments. In contrast, Intellectual Property is uniquely central to R&D operations and is the primary output of such departments. That's why R&D personnel are trained specifically to handle IP securely, ensuring the confidentiality and long-term value of their innovations.
In summary, due to the nature of their work, R&D staff primarily interact with Intellectual Property, making it the most accurate and relevant choice.
Question No 5:
A company has deployed an asset management system where every corporate laptop is labeled with an inventory sticker and linked to the corresponding employee's ID. This setup ensures each device is uniquely tracked and assigned to a specific user.
What are the main security benefits of this implementation? (Select two.)
A. Enables quick identification and contact of the responsible employee during a security incident.
B. Allows targeted security training to be delivered directly to the assigned device.
C. Facilitates secure setup of software-based MFA tokens tied to device-user relationships.
D. Supports enforcement of user-specific firewall policies on corporate laptops.
E. Assists penetration testers in identifying test targets more accurately.
F. Ensures effective tracking and protection of company data when an employee departs.
Correct Answers: A, F
Explanation:
Tagging corporate laptops and associating them with specific employee identities offers significant security and operational advantages, particularly in the areas of accountability and data protection during offboarding.
Firstly, option A is correct because associating a laptop with a unique employee ID allows the security team to quickly trace back incidents—such as a data breach or policy violation—to the responsible user. This traceability improves the speed and effectiveness of incident response, enabling swift contact, investigation, and resolution. Accountability is a cornerstone of good cybersecurity practice, and this kind of mapping ensures actions can be traced to individuals when necessary.
Secondly, option F is also correct. When employees leave the company, managing and protecting corporate data becomes a critical task. With laptops properly tagged and linked to user identities, IT and security teams can efficiently identify and secure all hardware and data assets related to that employee. This prevents data leakage, unauthorized access, and loss of intellectual or operational data, and supports regulatory compliance and internal policy adherence.
The other options, while technically relevant in broader IT and security strategies, do not directly stem from the asset tagging and user-device association:
Option B (targeted training to the device) is a misunderstanding—training is user-centric, not device-centric.
Option C (MFA configuration) may leverage identity, but it’s not a primary benefit of asset tagging.
Option D (personalized firewall rules) relates more to network policy than asset tracking.
Option E (support for penetration testing) may be helpful, but penetration testing is not the intended primary function of asset labeling.
In conclusion, accountability during incidents and secure offboarding of employees are the most valuable and direct security outcomes of the described asset management approach, validating A and F as the correct choices.
Question No 6:
As employees return from remote work to on-site office settings, a technician is responsible for raising awareness about workplace-specific security risks. These risks include tailgating, unattended devices, physical access breaches, and social engineering — threats that were less prominent in a remote environment.
Which of the following methods would be most effective in increasing situational and environmental security awareness among current employees during this transition?
A. Send out periodic security reminders
B. Update onboarding materials for new hires
C. Modify the content of recurring training sessions
D. Conduct a simulated phishing campaign
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As organizations shift employees from remote to in-office work environments, the security threat landscape changes significantly. While remote setups prioritized digital safeguards such as home network integrity and VPN usage, physical office environments require greater vigilance toward situational and environmental threats — including tailgating, physical breaches, and in-person social engineering tactics.
Among the listed options, modifying the content of recurring training offers the most effective and comprehensive strategy. Recurring training is designed to reach all employees regularly and can be adjusted to reflect current risks. By incorporating office-specific scenarios such as securing workstations, recognizing suspicious behavior, avoiding shoulder surfing, and locking up devices, organizations equip employees with practical, relevant guidance tailored to their current work setting.
Although A (periodic reminders) may help reinforce security practices, they typically lack depth and do not lead to lasting behavioral change. B (new hire documentation updates) only benefit new staff and fail to impact existing employees, who are the primary audience during this transition. D (phishing campaigns) are beneficial for testing awareness around email-based threats but don't address the broader spectrum of physical and environmental risks present in office environments.
In contrast, updating recurring training creates a structured, inclusive approach that enhances the workforce’s overall security posture. It allows employees to adapt their behavior in alignment with new threats, thereby reducing human error and strengthening the organization's resilience during a critical transition phase.
Question No 7:
A new board member with a cybersecurity background has requested regular updates on security incidents affecting the organization. They have asked for quarterly reports summarizing the number and types of incidents in a format that is accessible to executive leadership.
Which of the following would be the most suitable tool for presenting this information to the board of directors?
A. Packet captures
B. Vulnerability scans
C. Metadata
D. Dashboard
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
When presenting cybersecurity incident data to a board of directors, it is critical to convey information in a high-level, digestible format that supports strategic decision-making. A dashboard is the ideal tool for this purpose, as it offers a visual representation of data — such as incident volume, types, severity, response times, and resolution trends — over a defined reporting period.
Dashboards provide real-time insights and facilitate understanding for non-technical stakeholders by translating complex metrics into easy-to-read visuals, charts, and summaries. This is especially useful for board members who are more concerned with organizational impact, risk exposure, and overall trends rather than low-level technical data.
The other options fall short in effectively communicating at the executive level:
A (Packet captures): These are raw network traffic files used in detailed analysis and forensics. They contain too much granular data and are not appropriate for a non-technical audience.
B (Vulnerability scans): These identify potential system weaknesses but do not show whether or how often these vulnerabilities have been exploited. They highlight risks but not confirmed incidents.
C (Metadata): While metadata can provide supporting details about security events, it lacks the broader context and aggregation necessary for strategic analysis or trend monitoring.
Ultimately, dashboards strike the right balance between technical depth and executive-level clarity, making them the most suitable choice for communicating cybersecurity incidents in a quarterly report to the board. They support informed governance by enabling leadership to quickly grasp the security status and make appropriate decisions based on data-driven insights.
Question No 8:
A systems administrator is reviewing alerts from a file integrity monitoring (FIM) system. One specific alert reports a change in the hash value of the system file cmd.exe. Upon further investigation, the administrator checks the operating system’s event logs and finds no system updates or patches have been applied in the last two months. This raises suspicion, as system files such as cmd.exe should only change in the event of updates or authorized actions.
What is the most probable cause for the change in the hash value of cmd.exe?
A. The end user modified the file permissions
B. A cryptographic collision occurred
C. A snapshot of the file system was taken
D. A rootkit was installed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
File integrity monitoring (FIM) tools are critical in identifying unauthorized changes to system files by comparing the current file hash with previously recorded, known good values. A change in the hash of cmd.exe, a vital Windows system file, is significant. Given that no recent updates or patches have been applied, there's no legitimate explanation for this file's modification.
The most likely cause in such cases is the presence of malware, specifically a rootkit. Rootkits are malicious programs designed to gain unauthorized root or administrative access and to remain undetected by hiding within the system. These rootkits often modify system files like cmd.exe, altering their hash values to enable malicious activities such as creating backdoors, stealing data, or interfering with normal operations.
Let's consider the other options:
A. Modifying file permissions would not affect the file’s hash value, as hash functions focus on the file content, not the metadata associated with it.
B. Cryptographic collisions are highly unlikely in secure hash algorithms. Even if a collision were to occur, it would typically require intentional manipulation, which is not a likely cause in this case.
C. Taking a snapshot of the file system is a read-only operation and does not alter the actual contents of files, meaning it wouldn’t impact the file’s hash.
Considering the lack of recent updates and the detected hash change, the most plausible explanation is D, indicating a rootkit deployment, which signals a compromise that demands immediate attention and investigation.
Question No 9:
In a cloud computing environment that adheres to the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, security responsibilities are divided between the cloud service provider and the client organization, following the shared responsibility model.
Who is primarily responsible for securing the company’s database when it is hosted in an IaaS cloud model?
A. The Client
B. A Third-party Vendor
C. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)
D. The Database Administrator (DBA)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) cloud computing model, the shared responsibility model is used to define who is responsible for what in terms of security. Under this model:
The Cloud Service Provider (CSP) is responsible for securing the infrastructure, which includes physical data centers, networking, servers, virtualization, and storage.
The Client (you or your organization) is responsible for managing and securing everything deployed on top of the infrastructure. This includes:
Operating systems
Applications
Data
Databases
User access and permissions
Security configurations
Therefore, when a company's database is hosted on an IaaS platform, it is the client's responsibility to ensure that the database is secured properly. This involves setting access controls, encryption, backups, and monitoring.
While a Database Administrator (DBA) (option D) might handle the technical tasks involved in securing the database, the overall responsibility lies with the client organization, not the individual or the CSP.
CSP secures the underlying infrastructure.
Client secures the database, OS, and application stack.
Correct answer: A. The Client.
Would you like a breakdown of shared responsibilities across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS for comparison.
Question No 10:
Which of the following is the BEST method for securing a web server to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data stored on the server?
A. Enable an application firewall on the server
B. Use multifactor authentication (MFA) for all administrative accounts
C. Ensure that SSL/TLS encryption is configured for the server
D. Regularly apply patches and updates to the server operating system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best method for securing a web server to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data stored on it involves ensuring SSL/TLS encryption is configured for the server (C). Here's why:
Explanation of SSL/TLS Encryption:
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and its successor TLS (Transport Layer Security) are cryptographic protocols designed to provide secure communication over a computer network. When SSL/TLS encryption is enabled, all data transferred between the web server and the client (e.g., a user's browser) is encrypted, ensuring that sensitive data such as login credentials, payment information, or personal data is protected during transmission.
Without SSL/TLS, the data is transmitted in plaintext, making it vulnerable to Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks, where an attacker could intercept and view the data.
Thus, ensuring SSL/TLS is configured protects sensitive data during transmission, making it the best option for securing the web server and protecting sensitive information.
Why Other Options Are Not The Best:
A. Enable an application firewall on the server:
While an application firewall can be useful in filtering malicious traffic (e.g., blocking SQL injection attacks or other exploits), it does not directly protect the transmission of sensitive data between the web server and clients. It helps prevent attacks from reaching the server, but it doesn't address encryption of data in transit. SSL/TLS is the better choice for protecting the data itself.
B. Use multifactor authentication (MFA) for all administrative accounts:
MFA is a strong security measure, especially for securing access to administrative accounts, but it doesn't directly impact the security of sensitive data during transmission. While MFA helps prevent unauthorized access to the web server, it does not ensure the confidentiality of sensitive data when it's being sent between the server and the client. SSL/TLS encryption addresses this concern more effectively.
D. Regularly apply patches and updates to the server operating system:
Patching and updates are critical for maintaining the overall security of the server by addressing known vulnerabilities in the operating system. However, this practice focuses on protecting the server from exploits and does not directly address the protection of data in transit. SSL/TLS encryption is the most effective way to protect sensitive data during transmission, which is the core focus of this question.
To secure a web server and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data stored on the server, it is essential to use SSL/TLS encryption to protect data during transmission. This ensures that the data cannot be intercepted or tampered with as it travels between the server and the client. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Ensure that SSL/TLS encryption is configured for the server.
