Palo Alto Networks PCDRA Exam Dumps, PCDRA Practice Test Questions

Palo Alto Networks PCDRA Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

What tactic is most commonly and effectively used by ransomware attackers to paralyze a victim’s operations and force ransom payment?

A. Disrupting APIs to impact infrastructure functionality
B. Blocking outbound traffic until ransom demands are met
C. Limiting access to admin accounts and privileges
D. Encrypting essential files to make them inaccessible

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ransomware attacks typically aim to cause significant disruption to an organization's operations, with the goal of extorting a ransom payment from the victim. The most common and effective tactic used by ransomware attackers to achieve this goal is encrypting essential files to make them inaccessible.

When a ransomware attack encrypts critical files, it effectively locks the victim out of their own data. This disruption is often severe, especially for organizations that rely on access to those files for their daily operations. Files might include financial records, customer data, intellectual property, or other sensitive business information. By making these files inaccessible, the attacker creates an urgent need for the victim to regain access, which is typically achieved by paying the ransom. This tactic is highly effective because it directly impacts the victim's ability to function and can result in significant financial losses if not resolved.

Let’s review the other options:

A. Disrupting APIs to impact infrastructure functionality could cause problems, but it is not the most common or direct tactic used by ransomware attackers. Ransomware typically focuses on rendering critical data inaccessible rather than disrupting infrastructure APIs. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. Blocking outbound traffic until ransom demands are met is not a common method used by ransomware attackers. While some types of attacks may involve blocking communication channels, the encryption of files remains the most straightforward and disruptive tactic used by ransomware. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. Limiting access to admin accounts and privileges could be part of a broader attack strategy, but it is not the most commonly employed tactic by ransomware attackers. The primary objective of ransomware is to lock down data via encryption, not necessarily to limit admin access. Therefore, C is incorrect.

In summary, the most common and effective tactic used by ransomware attackers to paralyze a victim's operations and force ransom payment is D (encrypting essential files to make them inaccessible).

Question 2:

Which combination of MITRE ATT&CK™ tactics can Cortex XDR Analytics identify and generate alerts for when detecting malicious behavior?

A. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Collection
B. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Privilege Escalation
C. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Impact
D. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Lateral Movement

Answer: D

Explanation:
Cortex XDR Analytics, a detection and response platform, is designed to identify and alert on malicious behavior by correlating data across various sources and tactics defined by the MITRE ATT&CK framework. The correct combination of tactics that Cortex XDR typically focuses on for identifying malicious behavior is Exfiltration, Command and Control, and Lateral Movement.

Let’s break down why D is the correct choice:

Exfiltration refers to the process where an attacker attempts to steal sensitive data from a compromised network or system. This is a common goal for attackers, as data theft is often a precursor to further exploitation or monetization.
Command and Control (C2) refers to the techniques attackers use to establish communication with their compromised systems. It is essential for controlling and instructing compromised devices to perform further malicious actions, such as exfiltrating data or propagating the attack across the network.
Lateral Movement refers to the techniques used by attackers to move from one system or network segment to another, expanding their access and control over a targeted environment. This is crucial for attackers who need to escalate their attacks and access more sensitive systems or data.

Cortex XDR is designed to detect and alert on these key behaviors, as they are indicative of malicious activity that can lead to significant breaches or damage. The combination of these tactics is aligned with the stages of a typical attack, from initial compromise to data exfiltration and further propagation within the network.

Let’s review the other options:

A. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Collection – While Collection is a tactic in the ATT&CK framework, it is more about gathering data before exfiltration and is not as critical for alerting as Lateral Movement, which represents active attempts to move within the network and escalate access. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Privilege Escalation – While Privilege Escalation is an important tactic, Cortex XDR is more likely to focus on behaviors like Lateral Movement (to propagate the attack) rather than directly tracking privilege escalation attempts in isolation. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. Exfiltration, Command and Control, Impact – Impact is generally associated with the outcome of an attack (e.g., data corruption, denial of service), but it is not directly tied to detecting behavior across the network in the way Lateral Movement is. Therefore, C is incorrect.

In conclusion, the combination of Exfiltration, Command and Control, and Lateral Movement is the most relevant for Cortex XDR Analytics when detecting malicious behavior, making D the correct answer.

Question 3:

In platforms like Cortex XSOAR or Cortex XDR, what actions can be performed from the right-click menu after selecting multiple incidents? (Choose two)

A. Assign all selected incidents to an analyst
B. Update the status of all selected incidents
C. Open a combined investigation view for all selected incidents
D. Permanently remove all selected incidents from the system

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
In platforms like Cortex XSOAR or Cortex XDR, the ability to efficiently manage multiple incidents at once is crucial for improving incident response and handling. The right-click menu provides several actions that can be applied to selected incidents, allowing analysts to streamline their workflow.

Let’s break down each option:

A. Assign all selected incidents to an analyst – One of the key functionalities in incident management systems is the ability to assign multiple incidents to a specific analyst. This helps distribute the workload and ensures that incidents are managed by the appropriate personnel. By selecting multiple incidents, an analyst can quickly assign them to a colleague or themselves for resolution. Therefore, A is correct.

B. Update the status of all selected incidents – Incident status is an important field for tracking the progress of investigations. The right-click menu typically allows you to update the status of multiple incidents at once, such as changing them to "Under Investigation" or "Resolved." This action helps keep incident tracking efficient and allows for bulk changes, saving time for the analyst. Therefore, B is correct.

C. Open a combined investigation view for all selected incidents – While combining investigations may be useful in certain contexts, platforms like Cortex XSOAR or Cortex XDR are generally focused on investigating each incident in its own context rather than combining multiple incidents into a single view. Therefore, C is incorrect.

D. Permanently remove all selected incidents from the system – Deleting or permanently removing incidents is generally not a typical feature available from a right-click menu due to the risks associated with losing important data. Usually, incidents can be marked for deletion or archived, but permanent removal is typically done through different channels that ensure compliance with data retention policies. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In conclusion, the actions that can be performed from the right-click menu in platforms like Cortex XSOAR or Cortex XDR after selecting multiple incidents are A (assign all selected incidents to an analyst) and B (update the status of all selected incidents).

Question 4:

If a file is flagged as malware by Local Analysis, but WildFire later determines it's benign, how should this detection be classified?

A. True positive
B. False positive
C. False negative
D. True negative

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the context of threat detection, the classification of detections as true positive, false positive, false negative, or true negative depends on the outcome of subsequent analysis. Let’s break down the terms first:

True Positive (TP): This is when a detection is correctly flagged as malicious, and subsequent analysis confirms it is indeed malicious.
False Positive (FP): This occurs when something is incorrectly flagged as malicious, but subsequent analysis shows it is actually benign.
False Negative (FN): This is when something is incorrectly not flagged as malicious, even though it is malicious.
True Negative (TN): This is when something is correctly identified as benign, and subsequent analysis confirms it is not malicious.

In this case, the file was initially flagged as malware by Local Analysis (a security tool or engine). However, when WildFire (another security tool or threat intelligence system) later analyzes the file, it determines that the file is actually benign.

This situation indicates that the file was incorrectly flagged as malware by Local Analysis, but later analysis confirmed it was not malicious. Therefore, this detection should be classified as a False Positive (FP), as it was a false alarm—Local Analysis falsely flagged the benign file as malware.

A. True positive is incorrect because the file was not actually malware, making this a false alarm rather than a correct identification of malicious activity. Therefore, A is incorrect.

C. False negative would apply if the system failed to identify malware as malicious, but that’s not the case here—the file was flagged as malware, just incorrectly. Therefore, C is incorrect.

D. True negative would mean the file was correctly identified as benign from the outset, which wasn’t the case here. It was flagged as malicious, so it does not qualify as a true negative. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In conclusion, the detection should be classified as a False Positive (B) because the initial analysis incorrectly flagged the benign file as malware.

Question 5:

What happens when an alert exclusion policy is applied in Cortex XDR for a specific type of behavior or alert?

A. The previously blocked process is allowed by the agent
B. The alert is hidden from the user interface only
C. Future alerts matching the criteria are suppressed by the agent
D. Existing alerts are deleted and similar ones are blocked from being ingested

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Cortex XDR, an alert exclusion policy is used to prevent future alerts related to specific types of behavior from being triggered or reported. This feature is especially useful when you know certain events or behaviors are benign and do not need to be constantly flagged as potential threats.

Let’s break down the options:

A. The previously blocked process is allowed by the agent – This option refers to allowing a process that was previously blocked, but it does not accurately describe what happens when an alert exclusion policy is applied. The exclusion policy is focused on suppressing or excluding alerts, not necessarily blocking or allowing processes. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. The alert is hidden from the user interface only – While the exclusion policy might make alerts less visible or suppress them, it doesn’t specifically just "hide" them from the user interface. Instead, it prevents the agent from generating future alerts of that type, ensuring they are suppressed entirely. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. Future alerts matching the criteria are suppressed by the agent – This is the correct explanation of the behavior of an alert exclusion policy. When this policy is applied, Cortex XDR will stop generating alerts that match the criteria defined in the exclusion rule. This is a proactive way to manage false positives or events that are known to be non-malicious. Therefore, C is correct.

D. Existing alerts are deleted and similar ones are blocked from being ingested – An alert exclusion policy does not delete existing alerts; it only suppresses future alerts that match the exclusion criteria. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In conclusion, when an alert exclusion policy is applied in Cortex XDR, C (future alerts matching the criteria are suppressed by the agent) is the correct behavior.

Question 6:

In terms of exploits in cybersecurity, what best defines the relationship and ultimate target of application and kernel exploits?

A. The main goal of an exploit is to compromise the application layer
B. Kernel exploits are simpler to detect and block than application-level exploits
C. Exploits ultimately aim to control or access the kernel
D. Application exploits require kernel vulnerabilities to succeed

Answer: C

Explanation:
Exploits are malicious techniques or attacks used by attackers to take advantage of vulnerabilities in a system or application. The ultimate goal of many exploits is to gain control or access to the kernel, the core part of the operating system that has the highest privileges.

Let’s analyze each option:

A. The main goal of an exploit is to compromise the application layer – While some exploits target the application layer, many others, especially advanced ones, target the kernel or other critical areas of the system. Compromising the kernel usually provides the attacker with elevated privileges and full control over the system, making it a more critical target. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. Kernel exploits are simpler to detect and block than application-level exploits – In general, kernel exploits are considered more sophisticated and harder to detect than application-level exploits. Application-level exploits can often be detected by signature-based methods, while kernel exploits may require more advanced detection techniques, such as behavioral analysis or memory integrity checks. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. Exploits ultimately aim to control or access the kernel – This is the correct answer. Exploits often target vulnerabilities in the application layer, but the ultimate goal of many of these attacks is to gain control of the kernel. By gaining access to the kernel, attackers can bypass security controls and potentially escalate privileges or execute arbitrary code. Once the kernel is compromised, the attacker has almost unrestricted access to the system. Therefore, C is correct.

D. Application exploits require kernel vulnerabilities to succeed – This is not accurate. Application exploits can succeed independently without needing kernel vulnerabilities. Many application-level exploits work by exploiting weaknesses in the application itself, such as buffer overflows, and do not require compromising the kernel. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In summary, C (exploits ultimately aim to control or access the kernel) is the most accurate statement regarding the relationship and target of application and kernel exploits.

Question 7:

When building a BIOC rule using an XQL query in Cortex XDR, which field must be included to make the rule valid?

A. causality_chain
B. endpoint_name
C. threat_event
D. event_type

Answer: D

Explanation:
BIOC (Behavioral Indicators of Compromise) rules in Cortex XDR are created using XQL (Extended Query Language) queries to detect specific patterns or behaviors indicative of an attack. To make the BIOC rule valid, certain fields are required in the query.

Let’s review each option:

A. causality_chain – The causality_chain field is not mandatory when building a valid BIOC rule, although it can be useful for correlating events. It is not a required field for the rule to function correctly. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. endpoint_name – While the endpoint_name could be useful for targeting specific devices or systems, it is not a required field to make the BIOC rule valid. The rule can function without specifying an endpoint name. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. threat_event – The threat_event field is relevant in the context of threat detection but is not always required to create a valid BIOC rule. The rule can still be constructed without it, as long as the proper event types and other critical fields are included. Therefore, C is incorrect.

D. event_type – The event_type field is a required field in a BIOC rule. The event type defines the specific type of event the rule is designed to detect, and it is crucial for the proper function of the BIOC rule. Without this field, the rule cannot be processed properly by Cortex XDR. Therefore, D is correct.

In conclusion, when building a BIOC rule using an XQL query in Cortex XDR, the event_type field must be included to make the rule valid.

Question 8:

Which option describes a successful exploitation of a system vulnerability?

A. Plugging in unknown media that auto-executes malware via Autorun
B. Running code that abuses a local service vulnerability
C. Finding unpatched services on a server
D. Launching signed, reputable software

Answer: B

Explanation:
Exploitation of a system vulnerability occurs when an attacker takes advantage of a flaw or weakness in the system to gain unauthorized access, escalate privileges, or execute malicious actions. The successful exploitation of vulnerabilities typically involves the attacker interacting with specific code or system weaknesses to manipulate or bypass security controls.

Let’s analyze each option:

A. Plugging in unknown media that auto-executes malware via Autorun – While this scenario could lead to the execution of malware, it is not an exploit in the traditional sense. Exploiting a vulnerability typically involves abusing a flaw in the software or system behavior, rather than relying on an external device to automatically trigger malicious actions. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. Running code that abuses a local service vulnerability – This option is a clear example of a successful exploitation. When an attacker runs code that exploits a local service vulnerability, they are taking advantage of a weakness in the system to gain unauthorized access, execute malicious code, or escalate privileges. This is a textbook example of exploitation. Therefore, B is correct.

C. Finding unpatched services on a server – Finding unpatched services is a good first step toward identifying potential vulnerabilities but does not describe the successful exploitation of a system. The exploit occurs when the attacker takes action to abuse the unpatched service to gain control or access. Therefore, C is incorrect.

D. Launching signed, reputable software – Launching signed, reputable software does not involve exploiting a vulnerability. In fact, reputable software is usually trusted and does not involve malicious activity. This option is unrelated to system exploitation. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In conclusion, B (running code that abuses a local service vulnerability) best describes the successful exploitation of a system vulnerability, where the attacker takes advantage of a flaw to execute harmful actions.

Question 9

How are alerts related to incidents in a security monitoring system?

A. Alerts from the same host within a time window form an incident
B. Alerts within a three-hour span are grouped into one incident
C. Alerts sharing a causality chain and occurring within a time frame form an incident
D. Every alert is logged as a new, separate incident

Answer: C

Explanation:
In security monitoring systems, alerts are generated by security tools or agents when suspicious or malicious activities are detected. These alerts are typically not handled individually but rather grouped together to form incidents. Incidents are broader events that represent the occurrence of related security issues, often involving multiple alerts.

Let’s examine each option:

A. Alerts from the same host within a time window form an incident – While it’s true that alerts from the same host can be related, the concept of an incident is more about how those alerts are correlated. Simply grouping alerts from the same host within a time window doesn’t always capture the essence of an incident. Therefore, A is incorrect.

B. Alerts within a three-hour span are grouped into one incident – This option suggests a fixed time window (three hours) for grouping alerts, but real-world scenarios may involve different time frames depending on the correlation logic used. Incidents are typically formed based on more complex criteria than just a specific time window. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. Alerts sharing a causality chain and occurring within a time frame form an incident – This is the most accurate description. Incidents are typically created by grouping alerts that are related to each other through a causality chain, which means the alerts are connected by a series of events or actions that lead to the same security outcome. The time frame within which these alerts occur also plays a role in determining the grouping. Therefore, C is correct.

D. Every alert is logged as a new, separate incident – This is inaccurate. In a well-organized security system, alerts are typically grouped into incidents based on their relationships, and every alert does not automatically create a new incident. This would lead to unnecessary duplication and hinder effective incident management. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In conclusion, C (alerts sharing a causality chain and occurring within a time frame form an incident) is the most accurate description of how alerts are related to incidents in a security monitoring system.

Question 10:

In Cortex XDR’s Windows agent malware protection flow, which security check is performed first?

A. Determining hash verdict
B. Behavioral threat analysis
C. Enforcing restriction policies
D. Evaluating child process behavior

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Cortex XDR, the Windows agent goes through a series of checks when processing a file to determine if it is malicious. The flow begins with an initial hash verdict determination, which is a fast and efficient method of identifying known malicious files based on their hash values.

Let’s review the options:

A. Determining hash verdict – This is the first step in the malware protection flow. The hash verdict process involves checking the file’s hash against a database of known hashes of both malicious and benign files. This allows for rapid identification of files that are already known threats or safe, without needing to perform more resource-intensive checks. Therefore, A is correct.

B. Behavioral threat analysis – Behavioral analysis typically comes after the hash verdict has been determined. It involves examining the file’s behavior in the system to detect malicious activity. However, it is not the first step in the malware protection flow. Therefore, B is incorrect.

C. Enforcing restriction policies – This action is part of the broader security control mechanisms that can be applied to prevent malicious actions. However, it is not the first check performed in the flow. Restriction policies are typically applied after identifying potential threats and verifying the file’s behavior. Therefore, C is incorrect.

D. Evaluating child process behavior – Evaluating child processes is part of behavioral analysis that occurs after the file has been executed and its actions are analyzed. This step follows the initial hash check and the behavioral threat analysis. Therefore, D is incorrect.

In conclusion, the first security check performed in the Cortex XDR malware protection flow is A (determining hash verdict), which allows for quick identification of known malicious or safe files.