Netskope NSK300 Exam Dumps, NSK300 Practice Test Questions

Netskope NSK300 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

You’ve been tasked with onboarding a new team member who requires access to the Netskope Security Cloud platform, but with limited administrative privileges due to the sensitivity of your environment. Your responsibility is to design a custom administrator role that limits access while still allowing the individual to perform required tasks.

Considering how Netskope applies Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) and visibility controls, which two statements correctly describe role customization in this context?
Select two options:

A. Administrator roles, by default, restrict users from viewing or downloading sensitive content.
B. The user interface can be configured to show only certain categories of events to limited roles.
C. All default permissions in a custom admin role start as “Read Only” for every available module.
D. Data masking can be universally activated across all Netskope services.

Answer: B and C

Explanation:

In Netskope’s Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) model, administrators have the flexibility to customize roles to manage the level of access a user has, especially in sensitive environments where controlling access is critical.

Option B: The user interface can be configured to show only certain categories of events to limited roles.
This is an accurate description of the visibility controls available in Netskope. By customizing the role of an administrator, you can limit which categories of events (such as security events or logs) are visible to them. This is useful when you want to give a user access to only specific parts of the platform based on their role and responsibilities, thereby enhancing security by limiting the visibility of sensitive information.

Option C: All default permissions in a custom admin role start as “Read Only” for every available module.
This is also correct. When you create a custom administrator role in Netskope, the default settings are generally set to Read Only for most modules. This ensures that users can view data without having full control or ability to modify settings, reducing the risk of accidental or unauthorized changes. From there, you can elevate permissions (e.g., allowing write access) for specific tasks or modules, ensuring a least-privilege model.

Option A: Administrator roles, by default, restrict users from viewing or downloading sensitive content.
While this statement seems reasonable, it is not entirely accurate as it pertains to how RBAC works in Netskope. By default, administrators may still have broad access to sensitive data based on the role assigned. Restricting access to sensitive content is typically a result of specific configuration choices in the role design, not a default setting for all administrator roles.

Option D: Data masking can be universally activated across all Netskope services.
While data masking is a powerful feature in Netskope for protecting sensitive information, it is not universally activated by default across all services. Data masking would be configured based on specific needs or roles, and its application is typically customized for specific areas where sensitive data exposure is a concern, rather than being universally activated.

In conclusion, B and C are the correct answers because they describe key features of RBAC in Netskope, enabling the customization of user roles based on visibility and read-only permissions for modules.

Question 2:

Your organization routes internet-bound traffic through Netskope to protect and monitor SaaS application usage. However, a financial SaaS platform is now inaccessible due to vendor-imposed IP filtering that only permits traffic from your company’s IP addresses. Since adding Netskope’s IP addresses to the allowlist isn’t feasible, you must find a solution that maintains visibility and security while ensuring access to the application.

What is the best method to redirect traffic through your corporate network instead of Netskope’s cloud infrastructure?

A. Implement Source IP Anchoring with Netskope Private Access (NPA) to maintain enterprise-based egress.
B. Configure Explicit Proxy over Tunnel (EPoT) so traffic routes out through your local network.
C. Use Cloud Explicit Proxy to maintain traffic routing through your organization’s public IPs.
D. Route traffic via an IPsec tunnel so that egress occurs through the on-prem data center.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The key challenge in this scenario is ensuring that internet-bound traffic, especially to a specific financial SaaS platform, can pass through your corporate network rather than Netskope's cloud infrastructure, due to vendor-imposed IP filtering. In this case, Source IP Anchoring using Netskope Private Access (NPA) is the most suitable method.

Option A: Implement Source IP Anchoring with Netskope Private Access (NPA) to maintain enterprise-based egress.
Source IP Anchoring is a feature that allows traffic to exit from your corporate network instead of directly from the cloud service provider (like Netskope’s infrastructure). By configuring NPA with Source IP Anchoring, you can ensure that the egress traffic uses your company’s public IP addresses. This allows the financial SaaS platform’s IP filtering to recognize and allow traffic from your organization’s IP addresses, while still benefiting from the visibility and security capabilities of Netskope. This method is particularly effective when you need to maintain strict control over the IP addresses used for outbound traffic.

Option B: Configure Explicit Proxy over Tunnel (EPoT) so traffic routes out through your local network.
While EPoT does route traffic through your local network, it is primarily used for controlling traffic through an explicit proxy server, not for maintaining corporate-based egress with visibility controls. EPoT typically routes traffic to Netskope’s cloud, so it wouldn’t effectively solve the issue of IP filtering by the SaaS vendor.

Option C: Use Cloud Explicit Proxy to maintain traffic routing through your organization’s public IPs.
The Cloud Explicit Proxy would route traffic to the Netskope cloud, not your organization’s network. This wouldn’t resolve the issue of IP filtering since the financial SaaS platform is blocking traffic from Netskope’s IPs. While this option allows monitoring of traffic, it doesn’t address the core requirement of routing traffic through your company’s IP addresses.

Option D: Route traffic via an IPsec tunnel so that egress occurs through the on-prem data center.
Routing traffic via an IPsec tunnel to the on-prem data center is a valid method for routing traffic through your corporate network. However, this solution is more appropriate for overall traffic management and security between networks. It doesn’t specifically solve the issue of ensuring visibility through Netskope’s platform while satisfying the SaaS vendor’s IP filtering requirements. Additionally, an IPsec tunnel could bypass some of the detailed security monitoring Netskope provides.

In conclusion, A is the best method because Source IP Anchoring with Netskope Private Access (NPA) allows traffic to exit through your corporate network, using your organization’s IP addresses, while still maintaining the security and visibility capabilities of Netskope. This ensures that the financial SaaS platform’s IP filtering allows the traffic to pass, solving the access issue without sacrificing visibility.

Question 3:

Your company uses Netskope's Secure Web Gateway (SWG) to inspect user traffic. After transitioning a test group from app-only steering to full web traffic steering, users began experiencing SSL certificate warnings when accessing a public company intranet site. Investigation reveals the site is using a certificate from your internal Certificate Authority (CA), which isn’t trusted by external clients.

To allow access to this site without SSL errors while retaining policy enforcement, which three actions can help resolve this?
Select three options:

A. Upload the internal CA’s root certificate to the Netskope platform.
B. Set a rule to bypass SSL inspection for the intranet domain.
C. Use a Real-time Protection policy to explicitly allow access.
D. Modify SSL error behavior in Netskope to bypass instead of block.
E. Instruct users to ignore the certificate error and proceed.

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:

In this scenario, users are encountering SSL certificate warnings when accessing a company intranet site due to Netskope’s Secure Web Gateway (SWG) inspecting traffic. The site uses an internal Certificate Authority (CA) that is not trusted by external clients, which causes SSL errors. To resolve this issue while still enforcing security policies, the following actions can help:

Option A: Upload the internal CA’s root certificate to the Netskope platform.
Uploading the internal CA’s root certificate to Netskope’s platform ensures that the platform can recognize and trust the certificate used by your internal company intranet site. By adding the internal CA to Netskope, the SSL inspection process can proceed without triggering errors since the platform will now recognize and validate the SSL certificate correctly. This action ensures that SSL inspection can be performed without breaking the connection, while still maintaining security and visibility.

Option B: Set a rule to bypass SSL inspection for the intranet domain.
Setting a rule to bypass SSL inspection for the intranet domain is another valid solution. By bypassing SSL inspection for specific domains (such as your internal intranet), Netskope will no longer decrypt or inspect SSL traffic to that domain. As a result, SSL certificates from your internal CA will be accepted directly by the browser, preventing SSL errors. This action allows access to the intranet site without interference from SSL inspection while still enforcing other policies on other traffic.

Option D: Modify SSL error behavior in Netskope to bypass instead of block.
Modifying the SSL error behavior in Netskope to bypass rather than block can also resolve the issue by allowing traffic to pass through even if SSL errors occur. This prevents Netskope from blocking access to the intranet site when an SSL certificate warning appears, ensuring that users can still access the site. However, this option should be used with caution, as it can potentially bypass security measures for SSL issues in general, although it can be effective for specific use cases like this one.

Option C: Use a Real-time Protection policy to explicitly allow access.
Using a Real-time Protection policy to explicitly allow access could help ensure that the intranet site is not blocked, but it doesn’t address the SSL certificate issue directly. This option would be more effective for controlling access to specific URLs or applications rather than addressing SSL inspection errors. It doesn’t provide a solution to the SSL trust issue, which is the root cause here.

Option E: Instruct users to ignore the certificate error and proceed.
Instructing users to ignore SSL certificate errors is not recommended as it bypasses proper security checks. Ignoring certificate errors can expose users to security risks, including man-in-the-middle attacks. While this might allow temporary access to the site, it is not a secure or long-term solution and undermines the intent of SSL/TLS encryption, which is to ensure secure communications.

In conclusion, the best actions to resolve the issue are A, B, and D, as they address the core issue of SSL certificate trust while allowing Netskope to retain visibility and security enforcement over user traffic.

Question 4:

As part of an internal security review, you're analyzing a specific user's file transfer activity with Amazon S3 cloud storage. You've used the Skope IT query below to isolate relevant events:
user eq "[email protected]" AND (activity eq "Upload" OR activity eq "Download") AND app eq "Amazon S3" AND device eq "Client"

What specific data will this query provide?

A. Events showing that [email protected] uploaded or downloaded content via the Amazon S3 web service using the Netskope Client.
B. Download and upload activities performed by a particular IP address on Amazon S3 through Netskope Client.
C. All file activity involving users except [email protected] on Amazon S3 while using the Netskope Client.
D. Logs of upload and download actions from [email protected] on Amazon S3 as an application, conducted via the Netskope Client.

Answer: D

Explanation:

This Skope IT query is designed to filter and provide specific details about user activity related to Amazon S3 file transfers. Let’s break down the components of the query to understand what data it will return:

user eq "[email protected]": This part of the query isolates events related specically to the user with the email "[email protected]".
activity eq "Upload" OR activity eq "Download": This ensures the query is focusing on events where the user uploaded or downloaded content.
app eq "Amazon S3": This filters the events to those related to the Amazon S3 cloud storage service.
device eq "Client": This limits the events to those that occurred using the Netskope Client, rather than other methods (like a browser or mobile device).

Given these components, the query is specifically designed to show actions (uploads and downloads) by the user "[email protected]" within the Amazon S3 application, when performed via the Netskope Client. This matches Option D: Logs of upload and download actions from [email protected] on Amazon S3 as an application, conducted via the Netskope Client.

Option A: Events showing that [email protected] uploaded or downloaded content via the Amazon S3 web service using the Netskope Client.
This option is somewhat close, but it focuses on the web service of Amazon S3 specifically, which is not mentioned in the query. The query applies to the Amazon S3 application in general, not specifically the web service.

Option B: Download and upload activities performed by a particular IP address on Amazon S3 through Netskope Client.
This option is incorrect because the query does not filter based on IP address; instead, it isolates the activity by user, app, and device type.

Option C: All file activity involving users except [email protected] on Amazon S3 while using the Netskope Client.
This option is also incorrect, as the query specifically isolates activity for the user "[email protected]", not all users except them.

Thus, the correct answer is D, as it accurately describes the data the query will return: logs of upload and download actions performed by "[email protected]" on Amazon S3, specifically via the Netskope Client.

Question 5:

Following a security audit, it was found that employees are using unapproved cloud storage tools to share potentially confidential information. To support a risk assessment initiative led by your CISO, you’ve been asked to provide a report detailing users, applications, and instance identifiers involved.

Which Netskope feature should you utilize to compile this aggregated data for decision-making?

A. Advanced Analytics
B. User Behavior Analytics
C. Skope IT – Applications View
D. Cloud Confidence Index (CCI)

Answer: C

Explanation:

The task here is to provide a detailed report on users, applications, and instance identifiers involved in using unapproved cloud storage tools. Netskope offers several features that can help analyze and gather data related to cloud usage, but for this particular task, the Skope IT – Applications View is the best option.

Option C: Skope IT – Applications View
The Skope IT – Applications View is designed to provide a comprehensive overview of cloud application usage across your organization. It allows you to see which applications are being used, by which users, and the associated instance identifiers. This makes it particularly suitable for identifying unapproved cloud storage tools that employees may be using, as it aggregates information on cloud application traffic and usage patterns. By using this feature, you can compile the necessary data for your risk assessment, including users, applications, and instance identifiers, providing valuable insights for the CISO's initiative.

Option A: Advanced Analytics
Advanced Analytics in Netskope is more focused on data analysis and reporting for traffic patterns, cloud security posture, and various other metrics. While it can offer insights into usage trends, it may not provide the detailed user, application, and instance-level breakdowns needed for this specific report. It is a powerful tool for high-level insights, but for granular data aggregation like the one described in the question, the Skope IT – Applications View is more directly applicable.

Option B: User Behavior Analytics
User Behavior Analytics (UBA) focuses on identifying and analyzing user activity patterns, particularly useful for detecting anomalies or risky behavior. While UBA can help identify suspicious activities, it doesn’t directly provide the same level of detailed application and instance identifiers across cloud tools. UBA is a valuable tool for spotting risks, but not for gathering the specific report of user and application usage related to cloud storage tools.

Option D: Cloud Confidence Index (CCI)
The Cloud Confidence Index is a metric used to assess the security posture of cloud services based on various factors, such as compliance, security practices, and risk. It is not designed for aggregating detailed user and application data for reporting purposes. It provides a broad evaluation of cloud applications but does not serve the purpose of compiling specific user and application-level activity for a risk assessment.

In conclusion, C: Skope IT – Applications View is the most appropriate tool to use in this situation because it allows you to generate detailed reports on cloud application usage, including users, applications, and instance identifiers, which are required for the risk assessment initiative.

Question 6:

You are overseeing Netskope Client deployment for web traffic steering in a large enterprise setup. A specific application is excluded from Netskope inspection due to IP-based access controls that require requests to originate from company-owned IPs.

If a user accesses this application while connected to the enterprise network, and a bypass rule is in place, what IP address will appear as the source?

A. The loopback IP address
B. An IP from the Netskope data plane
C. The organization’s public (egress) IP address
D. A locally assigned RFC1918 address via DHCP

Answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, the goal is to determine what IP address appears as the source when a user accesses a specific application that is excluded from Netskope inspection, and the traffic is bypassed. Let's examine the options:

Option A: The loopback IP address
The loopback address (127.0.0.1) is used for communication within the local machine, typically for testing purposes or inter-process communication. It is not applicable in this context because the traffic is going through the enterprise network, not being processed locally.
Option B: An IP from the Netskope data plane
Netskope operates through its cloud-based data plane to inspect traffic. However, when a traffic bypass rule is in place, traffic bypasses the Netskope inspection and does not pass through the data plane. Therefore, this option is not applicable since the traffic is excluded from inspection and bypassed.
Option C: The organization’s public (egress) IP address
Since the traffic bypasses Netskope's inspection and goes directly from the enterprise network, the source IP address for external systems would be the organization’s public IP address (egress IP). This is the IP address assigned by the organization for external communication, and it will be used when the traffic passes through the enterprise's network infrastructure and is not routed through Netskope.
Option D: A locally assigned RFC1918 address via DHCP
RFC1918 addresses are private IP addresses used within local networks (e.g., 192.168.x.x, 10.x.x.x). These addresses are typically assigned by a DHCP server and are used internally within the enterprise. However, the IP address visible to the external application (in this case, the one excluded from inspection) would not be an internal private IP; instead, it would be the public egress IP address, especially when the traffic exits the network.

Thus, the correct answer is C, as the source IP visible to the external application would be the organization’s public (egress) IP address, which is the address used for all outgoing traffic from the corporate network to the internet. This ensures that the IP-based access controls on the application are satisfied, and the user can access the service without interference from the Netskope inspection, while maintaining the appropriate egress traffic.

Question 7:

Your organization processes numerous medical forms subject to DLP regulations. These forms are permitted for transmission only when blank, while those containing patient details must remain within trusted environments. You’re tasked with enforcing this requirement through Netskope’s DLP capabilities.

What’s the most appropriate first step in securing these documents?

A. Create Exact Data Match (EDM) signatures for the forms using Secure Forwarder.
B. Tag all forms using Microsoft Information Protection (MIP) via Secure Forwarder.
C. Generate fingerprints of the documents using Netskope Secure Forwarder.
D. Train a Machine Learning (ML) model to detect the forms using Secure Forwarder.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario involves ensuring that medical forms are handled according to strict Data Loss Prevention (DLP) regulations. The requirement is to allow only blank forms to be transmitted, while forms containing sensitive patient data must stay within trusted environments. To enforce this rule using Netskope's DLP capabilities, the best first step is to create Exact Data Match (EDM) signatures for the forms using Secure Forwarder.

Option A: Create Exact Data Match (EDM) signatures for the forms using Secure Forwarder.
Exact Data Match (EDM) signatures are a critical part of DLP enforcement, especially in environments like the one described here, where certain sensitive information (such as patient details) needs to be protected. EDM allows you to create precise patterns for specific data, such as the medical forms with patient details, and use those patterns to identify and block or restrict the transmission of forms that contain sensitive information. By creating EDM signatures for the forms, you can enforce strict controls over which forms are allowed to be transmitted based on their content (blank forms vs. forms with patient data). This is a highly effective first step to ensure compliance with the DLP regulations.

Option B: Tag all forms using Microsoft Information Protection (MIP) via Secure Forwarder.
While Microsoft Information Protection (MIP) tagging can help label documents with classifications for protection, this step is not specifically tailored to the enforcement of the DLP requirement. MIP can help classify documents but does not directly address the need to match specific content (like patient data) in the medical forms. It’s more of a labeling and classification tool rather than a content-based DLP mechanism for blocking or restricting forms based on their content.

Option C: Generate fingerprints of the documents using Netskope Secure Forwarder.
Fingerprinting documents can be useful for detecting unique documents, but this method is not as precise as EDM signatures when it comes to identifying specific content within documents. Fingerprinting may not reliably differentiate between blank forms and forms containing sensitive data. EDM signatures provide more specific and granular control over data elements within the documents, which is necessary for DLP enforcement in this case.

Option D: Train a Machine Learning (ML) model to detect the forms using Secure Forwarder.
While Machine Learning (ML) can be effective for detecting patterns in data, training an ML model for this specific use case might not be the best first step. The issue in this scenario requires precise matching of specific types of content (such as patient data) within documents. EDM signatures offer a more straightforward and reliable solution than using an ML model, which would require more time and resources to train and fine-tune to effectively distinguish between blank forms and forms with patient details.

In conclusion, A: Create Exact Data Match (EDM) signatures for the forms using Secure Forwarder is the most appropriate first step, as it allows you to accurately identify and manage the transmission of medical forms based on their content, which is essential for enforcing the DLP regulations.

Question 8:

You’re investigating a modification to a Salesforce record where a protected field was altered. You have access to the user details, approximate timestamp, and the field’s new value, and now you need to identify the previous value.

What is the best method to retrieve the original content of the modified field?

A. Build a standard Salesforce report filtering on the updated value for the field.
B. Use Advanced Analytics' Application Events Data Collection to filter for field changes.
C. Search for relevant page activity in Skope IT using the Page URL field.
D. Query Skope IT for API Connector events and locate the old value under Application Event Details using Edit actions.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The best method to retrieve the original content of a modified Salesforce field, given that you have some key details (user, timestamp, and new value), would be to query Skope IT for API Connector events and locate the old value under Application Event Details using Edit actions.

Option D: Query Skope IT for API Connector events and locate the old value under Application Event Details using Edit actions.
When it comes to tracking changes to Salesforce records, especially for a protected field, querying Skope IT for API Connector events is the most reliable method. API connectors capture changes made to Salesforce records, and you can access detailed event logs that show not only the new values but also the previous values of fields. By filtering for Edit actions within the Application Event Details, you can specifically locate the old value of the modified field. This option gives you the most direct access to the historical state of the field, making it the best method for retrieving the previous value.

Option A: Build a standard Salesforce report filtering on the updated value for the field.
While a Salesforce report can be helpful in tracking general changes, it won’t provide the previous value of a modified field. Salesforce reporting can show you what the field has been updated to, but it doesn’t allow you to see historical data before the change unless there is versioning or auditing enabled, which isn't guaranteed in all setups. Therefore, a standard report won’t provide the level of detail you're looking for in this investigation.

Option B: Use Advanced Analytics' Application Events Data Collection to filter for field changes.
Advanced Analytics in Netskope can capture and provide insights into user and application events, but it is more focused on traffic analysis and policy enforcement. While it might capture some activity related to the modified Salesforce record, it doesn’t directly offer a way to view the specific values of modified fields. The API Connector events from Skope IT are more focused on tracking such changes with specific field details.

Option C: Search for relevant page activity in Skope IT using the Page URL field.
The Page URL field in Skope IT tracks web activity and can show page visits, but it would not specifically help in identifying the old value of a modified Salesforce record. Page URLs are more about navigating to and interacting with applications, rather than capturing specific changes to records. This option would not give you the detailed field-level data you need for this investigation.

In conclusion, D: Query Skope IT for API Connector events and locate the old value under Application Event Details using Edit actions is the best option because it allows you to precisely track changes to Salesforce records and retrieve the previous values of modified fields. This approach ensures you have the exact historical data needed for your investigation.

Question 9:

Your organization is planning to roll out Netskope Remote Browser Isolation (RBI) for users accessing potentially risky websites. The security team wants to ensure that browser-based malware is contained and that no sensitive data is leaked through user interactions.

Which of the following features is most critical to enforce safe browsing behavior in this deployment?

A. Restrict downloads and clipboard operations within isolated sessions.
B. Enable split tunneling to allow direct access for trusted sites.
C. Configure DNS filtering instead of traffic redirection.
D. Allow users to bypass isolation for trusted categories.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When deploying Netskope Remote Browser Isolation (RBI), the goal is to contain potential threats from risky websites and prevent sensitive data leakage. In this context, restricting downloads and clipboard operations within isolated sessions is the most critical feature to ensure safe browsing behavior.

Option A: Restrict downloads and clipboard operations within isolated sessions.

This option directly addresses the core security goal of Remote Browser Isolation, which is to prevent malicious content from affecting the user's local environment and to ensure that sensitive data is not accidentally or maliciously transferred out of the isolated session. By restricting downloads and clipboard operations within isolated sessions, you minimize the risk of malware being downloaded to the local device or sensitive data being copied from the isolated environment to the user's machine. This ensures that even if a user visits a potentially risky website or interacts with malicious content, the impact is contained within the isolated session, preventing data leakage or system compromise.

Option B: Enable split tunneling to allow direct access for trusted sites.

Split tunneling allows traffic for trusted sites to bypass the isolation mechanism and go directly to the internet, which could potentially expose users to risks if the trusted sites are compromised or if an attacker gains access to the trusted network. Enabling split tunneling could undermine the effectiveness of RBI, as it would allow some traffic to bypass the protective isolation. This feature is generally used to optimize performance for trusted sites but does not contribute to the safe browsing behavior needed in this case.

Option C: Configure DNS filtering instead of traffic redirection.
DNS filtering can help block access to malicious websites by resolving domain names before users reach the sites. However, DNS filtering does not directly contain or isolate potential threats within a browsing session. Traffic redirection, which routes traffic through RBI for isolation, is a more effective way to ensure that all traffic from potentially risky sites is contained in a secure environment. Thus, DNS filtering alone would not offer the same level of protection as fully isolated browsing sessions.

Option D: Allow users to bypass isolation for trusted categories.
Allowing users to bypass isolation for trusted categories may make browsing more convenient but could also expose the system to unnecessary risks. By allowing users to bypass isolation, you could inadvertently enable the execution of potentially harmful content or data leakage from sensitive sites that should be protected. This could undermine the very purpose of deploying RBI, which is to isolate risky content and prevent harmful interactions.

In conclusion, A: Restrict downloads and clipboard operations within isolated sessions is the most critical feature to enforce safe browsing behavior, as it ensures that both malware containment and data protection are maintained while users interact with potentially risky websites.

Question 10:

While analyzing Skope IT logs, you notice unusual data upload activity to an obscure cloud app. You suspect this app might not comply with your company’s security standards. You want to quickly evaluate the security posture of the application.

What Netskope feature allows you to determine the app’s risk level and compliance certifications?

A. Real-time Activity Monitoring
B. Application Risk Dashboard
C. Cloud Confidence Index (CCI)
D. DLP Rule Analyzer

Answer: B

Explanation:

When analyzing unusual activity from an obscure cloud app, it's important to quickly assess its security posture and compliance with company standards. The best feature to determine the app's risk level and compliance certifications in Netskope is the Application Risk Dashboard.

Option B: Application Risk Dashboard
The Application Risk Dashboard provides detailed insights into the risk associated with cloud applications, including compliance certifications, security posture, and other relevant factors. It allows security teams to evaluate the security risks posed by specific cloud applications based on various factors like encryption, user authentication, data protection, and more. This tool helps you quickly identify whether the app in question complies with your company's security and regulatory requirements, and it gives you an understanding of the app’s overall risk profile. This makes it the most suitable option for determining the security posture and compliance of the cloud app in question.

Option A: Real-time Activity Monitoring
Real-time Activity Monitoring focuses on observing and tracking user activity in real time, such as the types of actions being performed with cloud apps, data transfers, and interactions with cloud services. While useful for monitoring behavior, it does not provide direct information about the app’s security posture or its compliance with standards. This tool would help you detect unusual behavior, but it won’t give you a comprehensive risk evaluation or compliance information for the cloud app.

Option C: Cloud Confidence Index (CCI)
The Cloud Confidence Index (CCI) offers an assessment of cloud apps’ overall risk and performance, but it is generally more focused on the reliability and performance aspects of cloud apps. While CCI evaluates factors such as availability and infrastructure quality, it does not provide detailed insights into the app’s security compliance or certifications, which are the key concerns in your scenario. Therefore, the CCI is not as focused on security posture and compliance as the Application Risk Dashboard.

Option D: DLP Rule Analyzer
The DLP Rule Analyzer is used for analyzing and testing Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies, ensuring that they are correctly configured to protect sensitive data. However, this tool is focused on verifying the effectiveness of DLP rules rather than evaluating the security posture or compliance certifications of specific cloud applications. While DLP may help prevent data leaks, it does not provide a direct assessment of an app's risk level or its compliance status.

In conclusion, B: Application Risk Dashboard is the most appropriate feature for evaluating the security posture and compliance certifications of a cloud app. It provides a clear view of the risks associated with the app, including security and regulatory compliance factors, which are essential for your investigation.