Fortinet NSE7_ZTA-7.2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
Which statements are accurate about performing bulk configuration changes through FortiManager CLI scripts? (Select two.)
A. Changes made to the Policy Package in the ADOM database are instantly applied to the connected FortiGate devices.
B. Modifications to the Device Database require using the installation wizard to apply them to the managed FortiGate devices.
C. Updates applied to all FortiGates within an ADOM are pushed automatically without generating a revision history.
D. When configuration changes are made directly on a remote FortiGate, administrators are unable to review them before they are applied.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
FortiManager is an essential tool for managing multiple FortiGate devices in an organized and centralized manner. It provides administrators with the ability to apply bulk configuration changes, but understanding how these changes work is crucial for maintaining network security and consistency.
A. Changes made to the Policy Package in the ADOM database are not instantly applied to the connected FortiGate devices. The Policy Package in FortiManager is a staging area where configurations are prepared, but changes are not immediately pushed to devices. Rather, administrators must manually initiate the installation of these configurations on FortiGate devices. This approach ensures that configurations can be reviewed and approved before being applied. Therefore, A is incorrect.
B. When modifications are made to the Device Database in FortiManager, the changes do indeed require using the installation wizard to apply them to the managed FortiGate devices. The Device Database contains device-specific configurations, such as interfaces and system settings. To ensure that these changes are correctly deployed, administrators must use the installation wizard, which provides a guided process for reviewing and applying the changes to the devices. Hence, B is correct.
C. Updates applied to all FortiGates within an ADOM are not automatically pushed without generating a revision history. FortiManager maintains a revision history for all changes, ensuring that administrators can track modifications and revert to previous configurations if necessary. This revision control is a crucial feature for maintaining consistency and accountability in network management. Since the system does not push changes automatically without keeping track of revisions, C is incorrect.
D. When configuration changes are made directly on a remote FortiGate device, administrators do not have the opportunity to review them before they are applied. This is because changes made directly on the FortiGate device bypass the FortiManager’s centralized control and review process. As a result, there is no oversight of these changes until they are deployed, which could lead to potential misconfigurations or security vulnerabilities. This lack of review makes D correct.
Question 2:
Which actions are performed automatically by FortiManager’s Install Wizard? (Select two.)
A. Display pending configuration changes for managed FortiGate devices.
B. Register FortiGate devices with FortiManager.
C. Retrieve policy packages from connected FortiGate devices.
D. Deploy configuration updates to managed devices.
E. Collect interface mapping data from managed FortiGate devices.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The Install Wizard in FortiManager is designed to simplify the process of applying configuration updates to managed devices. While some actions require manual intervention, others are automated by the wizard. Here's a closer look at each option to understand which actions it automates:
A. The Install Wizard automatically displays pending configuration changes for managed FortiGate devices. This is an essential feature, as it allows administrators to review the configuration updates before they are pushed to the devices. By providing a preview of the changes, the Install Wizard ensures that administrators can assess the modifications and make necessary adjustments before finalizing the deployment. Therefore, A is correct.
B. Registering FortiGate devices with FortiManager is not a function that is performed automatically by the Install Wizard. This process is typically handled separately, often during the initial setup of FortiManager or through manual device registration. The Install Wizard focuses on the configuration and deployment of updates rather than device registration. Thus, B is incorrect.
C. While the Install Wizard does allow for policy package retrieval, it does not perform this action automatically. Policy packages are generally retrieved when setting up the devices or during the configuration management process, but the Install Wizard does not retrieve policy packages automatically. The wizard is primarily concerned with applying updates, not fetching policies from FortiGate devices. Hence, C is incorrect.
D. The Install Wizard does indeed automatically deploy configuration updates to managed devices. This is one of the primary functions of the wizard: it applies changes to the FortiGate devices in a controlled and systematic manner. The wizard guides the administrator through the steps of deployment, ensuring that the right configurations are installed on the appropriate devices. Therefore, D is correct.
E. Collecting interface mapping data from managed FortiGate devices is not an action that is automatically performed by the Install Wizard. This process is typically handled manually or during the initial setup of FortiGate devices, and it is not part of the wizard's automated tasks. The Install Wizard focuses more on applying and managing configurations rather than gathering interface data. As a result, E is incorrect.
In summary, the Install Wizard in FortiManager automatically performs tasks such as displaying pending configuration changes (A) and deploying configuration updates (D).
Question 3:
An administrator needs to capture ESP traffic between two FortiGate devices using the built-in sniffer tool. Assuming no NAT exists between the devices, which command should be used?
A. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500"
B. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 4500"
C. diagnose sniffer packet any "esp"
D. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500 or udp port 4500"
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the administrator is trying to capture ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) traffic, which is part of the IPsec protocol suite used for securing network communications. ESP is a protocol that operates at the network layer and is used to encrypt the payload of IP packets for secure communication.
Let’s examine each option:
A. The command diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500" is used to capture ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) traffic, which is part of the key exchange process for establishing IPsec VPN tunnels. However, this does not capture ESP traffic. Since the question specifically asks for ESP traffic, this option is not appropriate.
B. The command diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 4500" is used to capture NAT-T (Network Address Translation Traversal) traffic. NAT-T is a mechanism used to allow IPsec traffic to pass through NAT devices. While this might be useful for IPsec traffic in environments where NAT is involved, it does not capture ESP traffic directly. Therefore, this option is also not correct for capturing ESP traffic.
C. The command diagnose sniffer packet any "esp" is the correct choice. ESP traffic is captured directly using this command, as it specifically targets the ESP protocol, which is what the administrator needs to monitor. This option will allow the administrator to capture the actual payload of the IPsec VPN traffic, including the encrypted content of the communication.
D. The command diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500 or udp port 4500" would capture both ISAKMP (UDP port 500) and NAT-T (UDP port 4500) traffic, but not ESP traffic directly. While useful for monitoring the control plane (key exchanges), this does not capture the actual encrypted payload (ESP), which is the focus of the question.
Thus, the correct command for capturing ESP traffic is C, as it targets the ESP protocol directly.
Question 4:
What conditions must be fulfilled for a static route to become active in FortiGate’s routing table? (Choose three.)
A. The next-hop IP address must be reachable.
B. There must be no alternate route to the same destination with a lower administrative distance.
C. If a link health monitor is set up, it must report the link as active.
D. The next-hop IP must fall within the subnet of the designated outgoing interface.
E. The outgoing network interface must be up and operational.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
In FortiGate, static routes are used to direct network traffic to specific destinations based on the defined criteria, such as the destination network, next-hop IP address, and the outgoing interface. For a static route to become active and be used in the routing table, certain conditions need to be met.
Let’s review each of the provided options:
A. The next-hop IP address must be reachable. This is a fundamental requirement for a static route to become active. If the next-hop IP address is not reachable (for example, if there is no route to the next-hop or it is down), the static route will not be used. The routing table needs to ensure that traffic can actually reach the next-hop device. Therefore, A is correct.
B. There must be no alternate route to the same destination with a lower administrative distance. This is incorrect. While it is true that administrative distance (AD) determines the priority of routes when multiple routes to the same destination exist, this condition is not directly required for a static route to become active. A static route will become active as long as the next-hop is reachable and the route is valid, regardless of the existence of other routes with lower AD, though it might not be selected if another route is more preferred based on the AD.
C. If a link health monitor is set up, it must report the link as active. Link health monitors are often used to check the availability of routes or interfaces. If a health monitor is configured for a static route, the route will not be considered active until the health monitor reports that the link is active. This is essential for ensuring that traffic is only routed through operational paths. Therefore, C is correct.
D. The next-hop IP must fall within the subnet of the designated outgoing interface. This is incorrect. The next-hop IP address does not need to fall within the subnet of the outgoing interface. In fact, the next-hop IP can be any IP address that is reachable through the outgoing interface, regardless of whether it falls within the same subnet. As long as the next-hop is reachable, the static route can be active.
E. The outgoing network interface must be up and operational. The outgoing interface for the static route must be up and operational for the route to be active. If the interface is down, traffic cannot be sent through that interface, and the route will not be used. Therefore, E is correct.
To summarize, for a static route to become active in FortiGate’s routing table, the conditions that must be met are: the next-hop IP must be reachable (A), any configured health monitor must report the link as active (C), and the outgoing interface must be up and operational (E).
Question 5:
When FortiGate operates as a ZTNA application gateway in tunnel mode, which two components must reside on the endpoint before a user can reach an internal web app over HTTPS? (Choose 2.)
A. An active FortiClient ZTNA agent registered to EMS
B. A valid machine-only certificate issued by the FortiGate CA
C. A ZTNA access proxy rule mapped to the application URL
D. An SSL VPN connection profile with tunnel-type = full
E. A predefined SAML assertion cache stored in the browser
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
In a Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) deployment with FortiGate operating as an application gateway in tunnel mode, the purpose is to securely connect endpoints to internal resources, such as web apps, over HTTPS. The ZTNA architecture enforces strict policies based on identity, posture, and access rules. Let’s break down each option to understand which components must be in place on the endpoint before accessing the internal web app:
A. An active FortiClient ZTNA agent registered to EMS (Enterprise Management Server) is necessary for ZTNA operation. The FortiClient ZTNA agent is responsible for ensuring that the endpoint meets security and compliance requirements before access to internal resources is allowed. It communicates with the EMS to evaluate the security posture of the device and enforce policies. Without this agent installed and registered, the endpoint cannot participate in the ZTNA process. Therefore, A is correct.
B. A machine-only certificate issued by the FortiGate CA is not required for the ZTNA tunnel to function. While certificates are often used for SSL/TLS authentication, ZTNA in this scenario depends on other mechanisms, like the FortiClient ZTNA agent, to validate posture and enforce security policies. Machine-only certificates are typically used for device authentication but are not a mandatory component for ZTNA in this case. Therefore, B is incorrect.
C. A ZTNA access proxy rule mapped to the application URL is required on FortiGate to define the access policy for specific internal web applications. These rules map URLs to applications and enforce the access control based on factors like device posture, identity, and other security criteria. Without the appropriate access proxy rule configured, the ZTNA gateway cannot route requests to the internal web app. Therefore, C is correct.
D. An SSL VPN connection profile with tunnel-type = full is specific to traditional SSL VPN configurations and is not necessary in a ZTNA scenario. ZTNA uses more granular access controls based on device and user posture, and it does not rely on a full SSL VPN tunnel. Therefore, D is incorrect.
E. A predefined SAML assertion cache stored in the browser is related to Single Sign-On (SSO) and is not a requirement for ZTNA. ZTNA operates based on the security posture of the endpoint, so while SSO and identity management may play a role in authentication, they are not the main components that must reside on the endpoint for ZTNA access to function. Therefore, E is incorrect.
In summary, the two components that must reside on the endpoint to access the internal web app over HTTPS in a ZTNA tunnel mode are A (FortiClient ZTNA agent registered to EMS) and C (ZTNA access proxy rule mapped to the application URL).
Question 6:
Which two posture-check items can EMS evaluate and forward to FortiGate as dynamic ZTNA tags? (Choose 2.)
A. Current Windows firewall status on the endpoint
B. Existence of a specific registry key
C. Average CPU utilization during the last 15 minutes
D. User’s Active Directory group membership
E. Presence of a FortiToken Mobile seed file
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
In ZTNA (Zero Trust Network Access), EMS (Enterprise Management Server) is responsible for evaluating the security posture of endpoints and forwarding dynamic tags to FortiGate for access control decisions. These dynamic tags help FortiGate enforce policies based on the real-time health and security posture of the endpoint. Let’s analyze each option to understand which posture-check items EMS can evaluate:
A. Current Windows firewall status on the endpoint can be evaluated by EMS as part of the security posture check. The status of the firewall can be an important factor in determining whether an endpoint is secure enough to access internal resources. If the firewall is disabled or misconfigured, this could indicate a security risk, and EMS can forward this status as a dynamic tag to FortiGate for policy enforcement. Therefore, A is correct.
B. The existence of a specific registry key can be evaluated by EMS. Registry keys are often used to store configuration or security-related settings on Windows-based devices. EMS can check for the presence or absence of certain registry keys to determine whether the endpoint meets security criteria (e.g., whether certain security software is installed). If the required registry key is missing or incorrect, EMS can forward this information as a dynamic tag to FortiGate. Therefore, B is correct.
C. Average CPU utilization during the last 15 minutes is not typically a posture-check item for ZTNA. EMS primarily focuses on security-related aspects like firewall status, registry configurations, and other endpoint security posture indicators. While CPU utilization may be relevant for performance monitoring, it is generally not used as a basis for granting or denying access in ZTNA. Therefore, C is incorrect.
D. User’s Active Directory group membership is relevant for identity-based access control but is typically evaluated as part of the authentication process, not as a posture check for endpoint health. While Active Directory group membership can influence access decisions, it is not directly tied to the endpoint's security posture or forwarded as a dynamic tag. Therefore, D is incorrect.
E. The presence of a FortiToken Mobile seed file is related to multi-factor authentication (MFA), but it is not typically part of the security posture evaluation that EMS uses for dynamic ZTNA tags. While FortiToken Mobile is part of Fortinet’s identity and access management system, it is not a posture check in the traditional sense, as it is more about user authentication rather than the endpoint's security state. Therefore, E is incorrect.
In conclusion, the two posture-check items that EMS can evaluate and forward as dynamic ZTNA tags are A (current Windows firewall status on the endpoint) and B (existence of a specific registry key).
Question 7:
A customer wants to grant contractors HTTPS access to an internal ticketing system only when they are outside the corporate LAN. Which two FortiGate configurations meet this requirement? (Choose 2.)
A. Create a ZTNA rule with source = contractors group and location = Internet
B. Enable Split-DNS under the ZTNA proxy profile
C. Add a geo-IP filter inside the ZTNA access-proxy setting
D. Configure identity-based firewall policy with service = ALL and ZTNA-tags filter
E. Define an implicit deny ZTNA rule for the contractors group with location = LAN
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
The requirement here is to allow contractors access to an internal ticketing system only when they are outside the corporate LAN, implying that access must be controlled based on both identity (contractors group) and location (outside the LAN).
Let's break down each option:
A. Creating a ZTNA rule with source = contractors group and location = Internet is a suitable solution. This rule would explicitly grant contractors access only when they are connecting from outside the corporate LAN (i.e., from the Internet). The contractors group would be the defining factor for identity, and the Internet location restriction ensures that access is allowed only from external networks. Therefore, A is correct.
B. Enabling Split-DNS under the ZTNA proxy profile is unrelated to the location-based access control. Split-DNS is a mechanism for routing DNS queries differently based on network location (e.g., internal vs. external). While Split-DNS can help route traffic for different network locations, it does not directly control access based on whether the contractors are inside or outside the corporate LAN. Therefore, B is incorrect.
C. Adding a geo-IP filter inside the ZTNA access-proxy setting is not necessarily the most efficient way to control access based on internal vs. external networks. Geo-IP filtering works by identifying the geographic origin of a connection, but this may not be as precise as directly using location-based ZTNA rules. While geo-IP could be used for access control, it is not the most accurate or straightforward solution for determining if contractors are inside or outside the LAN. Therefore, C is incorrect.
D. Configuring an identity-based firewall policy with ZTNAtags filter would focus on user or group-based access control, but it does not specify the location (inside vs. outside the corporate LAN) as required by the scenario. Identity-based firewall policies are useful for filtering based on user identity but do not inherently address location-based access requirements. Therefore, D is incorrect.
E. Defining an implicit deny ZTNA rule for the contractors group with location = LAN is a good way to ensure that contractors cannot access the system when they are inside the corporate LAN. This rule would block any access attempts from contractors when they are inside the network, ensuring that they can only access the ticketing system when they are outside the corporate LAN. Therefore, E is correct.
In conclusion, the correct configurations to meet the requirement are A (ZTNA rule with contractors group and location = Internet) and E (implicit deny ZTNA rule for contractors with location = LAN).
Question 8:
Which two statements about FSSO integration in a ZTNA deployment are true? (Choose 2.)
A. FSSO user logons can be mapped to ZTNA tags for conditional access policies.
B. FortiGate must operate in collector agent mode to ingest FSSO logon events.
C. When FSSO users disconnect, EMS immediately quarantines the endpoint.
D. FSSO can supply user group information to FortiGate without requiring LDAP queries.
E. FortiClient cannot coexist with FSSO on the same Windows workstation.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
FSSO (Fortinet Single Sign-On) integration plays a significant role in ZTNA (Zero Trust Network Access) deployments by providing user identity information to FortiGate, which is crucial for enforcing conditional access policies. Let’s review each statement to see which are true:
A. FSSO user logons can be mapped to ZTNA tags for conditional access policies.
This is correct. FSSO can map user logons to ZTNA tags, allowing FortiGate to enforce policies based on user identity and their current security posture. These tags can be used in dynamic ZTNA policies to determine whether an endpoint can access specific resources, making user logon information highly relevant for enforcing conditional access policies in ZTNA deployments. Therefore, A is correct.
B. FortiGate must operate in collector agent mode to ingest FSSO logon events.
This is incorrect. While the FortiGate collector agent mode is one way to collect FSSO logon events, it is not strictly required. FSSO can also be integrated through other methods, such as using a FortiAuthenticator or Active Directory (AD) integrations. Therefore, B is incorrect.
C. When FSSO users disconnect, EMS immediately quarantines the endpoint.
This statement is incorrect. While it’s true that EMS (Enterprise Management Server) can work with FortiGate to enforce policies based on the endpoint’s security posture, quarantining the endpoint is not an automatic action when FSSO users disconnect. The exact action taken when users disconnect depends on how the policies are defined, and quarantining would typically be triggered by specific policy conditions, not an automatic default behavior. Therefore, C is incorrect.
D. FSSO can supply user group information to FortiGate without requiring LDAP queries.
This is correct. FSSO can directly obtain user group information from Active Directory (AD) or other directory services without the need for additional LDAP queries. This makes FSSO an efficient method for identifying user groups and mapping them to dynamic ZTNA tags or other access control mechanisms in FortiGate. Therefore, D is correct.
E. FortiClient cannot coexist with FSSO on the same Windows workstation.
This statement is incorrect. FortiClient and FSSO can coexist on the same Windows workstation. In fact, they may complement each other in a ZTNA deployment, where FortiClient handles endpoint security (e.g., posture checks) while FSSO provides user authentication and identity information. There is no inherent conflict preventing them from being used together. Therefore, E is incorrect.
In summary, the correct statements about FSSO integration in a ZTNA deployment are A (FSSO user logons can be mapped to ZTNA tags for conditional access policies) and D (FSSO can supply user group information to FortiGate without requiring LDAP queries).
Question 9:
During troubleshooting you run diagnose debug ztna vpn on a FortiGate. The output shows reason=client-cert-missing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose 2.)
A. Ensure certificate inspection is set to deep-inspection on the matching policy.
B. Re-deploy the client certificate profile from EMS to the user device.
C. Disable ZTNA session-based source-nat on the access proxy.
D. Enable the Require client certificate option in the ZTNA rule.
E. Import the root CA that signed the client cert into FortiGate’s local CA store.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
The error reason=client-cert-missing indicates that the FortiGate device is expecting a client certificate from the user device, but it is not being presented during the ZTNA VPN handshake. This typically points to issues related to certificate configuration or missing client certificates. Let's break down each action:
A. Ensuring certificate inspection is set to deep-inspection on the matching policy relates to how SSL/TLS traffic is inspected, but it does not directly resolve issues related to the absence of a client certificate during a VPN session. Deep inspection would affect the FortiGate’s ability to inspect encrypted traffic but would not resolve missing client certificates in this case. Therefore, A is incorrect.
B. Re-deploying the client certificate profile from EMS to the user device would be a valid action if the client certificate profile is missing or incorrectly configured on the user device. The FortiClient or another endpoint security solution typically relies on this profile to authenticate the user during the ZTNA VPN connection process. Ensuring the certificate profile is correctly deployed can solve the issue of the missing client certificate. Therefore, B is correct.
C. Disabling ZTNA session-based source-nat on the access proxy does not relate to the client certificate issue. Source NAT (Network Address Translation) configuration generally deals with how the source IP is translated for outgoing connections. It is not involved in client certificate authentication. Therefore, C is incorrect.
D. Enabling the 'Require client certificate' option in the ZTNA rule is the correct solution to ensure that FortiGate expects and validates a client certificate for the connection. If this option is not enabled, FortiGate would not enforce client certificate validation, potentially leading to errors like client-cert-missing. Therefore, D is correct.
E. Importing the root CA that signed the client certificate into FortiGate’s local CA store is also an important step if the root CA is not already trusted by FortiGate. If FortiGate cannot validate the client certificate because it doesn't trust the CA that issued it, this could result in errors. However, the client-cert-missing error usually points to the absence of the certificate, not a trust issue. This action may still help if the problem is with certificate validation, but it doesn’t directly resolve the missing certificate issue. Therefore, E is incorrect.
In summary, the actions that will resolve the issue are B (re-deploying the client certificate profile from EMS) and D (enabling the 'Require client certificate' option in the ZTNA rule).
Question 10:
Which two Fortinet solutions provide inline enforcement for unmanaged IoT devices in a campus wired network as part of a zero-trust framework? (Choose 2.)
A. FortiNAC with dynamic VLAN and port-access control
B. FortiSwitch with DHCP fingerprint and policy-based segmentation
C. FortiAuthenticator in standalone RADIUS proxy mode
D. FortiSandbox file-inspection quarantine action
E. FortiAnalyzer real-time IOC push to FortiGate
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The zero-trust framework assumes that all devices, including unmanaged IoT devices, must be continuously validated and monitored. To enforce this, inline solutions can be used to segment, authenticate, and monitor these devices. Let’s evaluate the provided solutions:
A. FortiNAC with dynamic VLAN and port-access control is a highly effective solution for inline enforcement in a campus network. FortiNAC (Fortinet Network Access Control) is specifically designed to enforce security policies for both managed and unmanaged devices. It can assign devices to dynamic VLANs based on their compliance with security policies and can control port access based on device authentication status. This makes it ideal for enforcing zero-trust security for IoT devices in a wired campus network. Therefore, A is correct.
B. FortiSwitch with DHCP fingerprint and policy-based segmentation is also a strong solution for managing and segmenting IoT devices on a network. FortiSwitch can use DHCP fingerprinting to identify devices based on their behavior and apply policy-based segmentation to ensure that devices are only allowed to access specific network segments based on their identity and posture. This helps enforce zero-trust principles for unmanaged devices, such as IoT devices. Therefore, B is correct.
C. FortiAuthenticator in standalone RADIUS proxy mode is typically used for authenticating users rather than enforcing security policies for IoT devices. While it can authenticate devices in some scenarios, it is not directly an inline enforcement solution for segmenting and controlling IoT devices in the network. Therefore, C is incorrect.
D. FortiSandbox file-inspection quarantine action is used primarily for detecting and mitigating malware by inspecting files rather than enforcing zero-trust policies for IoT devices. While it provides an important layer of security by sandboxing and inspecting potentially malicious files, it is not designed for inline enforcement of network access for IoT devices. Therefore, D is incorrect.
E. FortiAnalyzer real-time IOC push to FortiGate is focused on providing analytics and reporting, not direct inline enforcement. While it can provide valuable threat intelligence and indicators of compromise (IOCs) to FortiGate for response actions, it does not perform inline access control or segmentation of IoT devices in a campus network. Therefore, E is incorrect.
In conclusion, the two Fortinet solutions that provide inline enforcement for unmanaged IoT devices as part of a zero-trust framework are A (FortiNAC with dynamic VLAN and port-access control) and B (FortiSwitch with DHCP fingerprint and policy-based segmentation).
