Fortinet NSE7_OTS-7.2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
Which of the following statements about bulk configuration changes using FortiManager CLI scripts are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When executed on the Policy Package in the ADOM database, changes are applied directly to the managed FortiGate.
B. When executed on the Device Database, you must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed FortiGate.
C. When executed on "All FortiGates" in the ADOM, changes are automatically installed without creating a new revision history.
D. When executed on a Remote FortiGate directly, administrators do not have the option to review the changes prior to installation.
Answer:B, D
Explanation:
FortiManager provides an efficient platform for managing FortiGate devices in bulk using CLI scripts. When executing bulk configuration changes, the location of the changes within FortiManager’s system impacts how and when the changes are applied to the managed devices. Here's the breakdown of each statement:
Statement A: This statement is incorrect. Changes made in the Policy Package within the ADOM (Administrative Domain) database are not immediately applied to the managed FortiGate device. The Policy Package in FortiManager requires an installation process to apply the changes. After committing the changes, administrators must install them to push the configurations to the devices.
Statement B: This statement is correct. When changes are made in the Device Database in FortiManager, the changes are not directly applied to the FortiGate devices. To deploy these changes, administrators must use the installation wizard to apply the changes to the managed devices. This step ensures that configurations are tested and deployed correctly.
Statement C: This statement is incorrect. When changes are applied to "All FortiGates" within an ADOM, FortiManager does create a revision history. Revision history is essential for tracking configuration changes, and it is a key feature in managing and auditing device configurations. Changes made without creating a new revision would undermine the ability to manage and roll back changes effectively.
Statement D: This statement is correct. When configuration changes are made directly on a remote FortiGate using FortiManager, there is no review process before installation. The changes are pushed immediately to the device without the option to review or approve them beforehand. This can be seen as less controlled and may lead to unintended consequences.
In conclusion, B and D accurately describe the behavior of configuration changes in FortiManager when using the Device Database and directly managing remote FortiGates.
Question No 2:
Which of the following tasks are automated by the Install Wizard on FortiManager? Select two tasks that are automated.
A. Preview pending configuration changes for managed devices
B. Add new devices to FortiManager
C. Import policy packages from managed devices
D. Install configuration changes to managed devices
E. Import interface mappings from managed devices
Answer:B, D
Explanation:
FortiManager is a centralized platform for managing Fortinet devices such as firewalls and network security appliances. The Install Wizard in FortiManager is designed to automate specific tasks that simplify device management and configuration deployment. Here's a breakdown of the tasks it automates:
Task B: Add new devices to FortiManager: The Install Wizard automates the process of adding new FortiGate devices (or other supported devices) to the FortiManager system. This is a critical task, as new devices must be registered with FortiManager before configurations can be pushed to them. The wizard ensures that the device is properly identified and linked to the FortiManager for subsequent management.
Task D: Install configuration changes to managed devices: Once configuration changes are made on FortiManager, the Install Wizard automates the deployment of these changes to the managed devices. This reduces the need for manual configuration and helps ensure that the devices are updated with the latest settings correctly and efficiently.
The other tasks listed in the options are important for FortiManager’s functionality but are not automated by the Install Wizard:
Task A: Preview pending configuration changes is not automated by the Install Wizard. It requires administrators to manually review changes before applying them.
Task C: Import policy packages from managed devices involves manually fetching policy data from FortiGate devices, which is not automatically handled by the Install Wizard.
Task E: Import interface mappings is another manual process that requires the administrator to define how the interfaces on the devices should be managed, which the wizard does not automate.
Thus, B and D are the correct answers, as these are the tasks that the Install Wizard automates for efficient device and configuration management.
Question No 3:
Based on the IPS exit log from a FortiGate device, which statement best describes the status of IPS?
A. IPS engine memory consumption has exceeded the model-specific predefined value.
B. IPS daemon experienced a crash.
C. There are communication problems between the IPS engine and the management database.
D. All IPS-related features have been disabled in FortiGate’s configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the provided log entry, key details indicate that the IPS engine was intentionally stopped. The log includes:
PID and Duration: The log shows that the IPS engine process (PID 93) had been running for a long period (5605322 seconds), implying it was active before termination.
Exit Code and Reason: The critical elements of this log entry are the exit code (code = 11) and the reason (reason: manual). The "manual" exit reason specifically indicates that the IPS engine was stopped intentionally, rather than due to a system crash, error, or failure. This suggests a deliberate action to disable or stop the IPS engine.
Now, let's break down the options:
Option A ("IPS engine memory consumption has exceeded the model-specific predefined value"):
This option is unlikely because the log does not mention memory issues or resource exhaustion. The exit reason is "manual," not related to any resource limits being exceeded.Option B ("IPS daemon experienced a crash"):
If a crash had occurred, the log would likely mention system errors or related failures. However, the "manual" exit reason clearly points to an intentional stop, not a crash. Therefore, this option is incorrect.Option C ("There are communication problems between the IPS engine and the management database"):
Communication issues would typically generate different log messages, such as errors related to connectivity or database interactions. A "manual" termination doesn't imply communication problems, so this option is also incorrect.Option D ("All IPS-related features have been disabled in FortiGate’s configuration"):
Since the log specifies a "manual" termination, it indicates that the IPS engine was deliberately disabled. This aligns with the idea that IPS-related features have been intentionally turned off or disabled in the device configuration, making this the correct option.
Thus, the correct interpretation of the log is that IPS features were manually disabled, and Option D is the right answer.
Question No 4:
What command should be run on a FortiGate device to capture ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) traffic between two devices, given there is no NAT device between them?
A. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500"
B. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 4500"
C. diagnose sniffer packet any "esp"
D. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500 or udp port 4500"
Answer: C
Explanation:
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) is an important part of IPSec VPN, responsible for providing confidentiality and integrity to the data in transit. To capture ESP traffic, it is essential to understand how it works in the context of FortiGate devices and their sniffer tool.
Understanding ESP Traffic:
ESP operates at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. It is part of the IPSec protocol suite and doesn't rely on specific UDP ports but is identified by its protocol number, 50. When capturing traffic using a sniffer tool, filtering based on the ESP protocol (rather than UDP ports) is the most accurate method.Why Option C is Correct:
The correct command to capture ESP traffic is diagnose sniffer packet any "esp". Since ESP traffic is identified by protocol 50, the sniffer tool can capture it by specifying the "esp" filter. This allows the capture of IPSec data without depending on any port number, which makes this option the most direct and accurate choice.Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Option A ("diagnose sniffer packet any 'udp port 500'"):
UDP port 500 is used for ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) during the negotiation phase of an IPSec VPN. This command captures ISAKMP traffic but does not capture the actual ESP traffic.Option B ("diagnose sniffer packet any 'udp port 4500'"):
UDP port 4500 is used for IPSec NAT Traversal (NAT-T), which enables IPSec traffic to pass through NAT devices. However, since there is no NAT device in this scenario, capturing traffic on this port is unnecessary. It is not relevant for capturing ESP traffic directly.Option D ("diagnose sniffer packet any 'udp port 500 or udp port 4500'"):
This command would capture both ISAKMP traffic (UDP port 500) and NAT-T traffic (UDP port 4500). While this is useful for capturing VPN setup and traversal traffic, it does not capture the actual ESP traffic, which is needed here.Conclusion:
To capture ESP traffic specifically, the correct command is diagnose sniffer packet any "esp". This filters traffic by the protocol number, ensuring the sniffer captures the IPSec data directly related to the secure payload being transferred between the FortiGate devices.
Thus, Option C is the correct choice for capturing ESP traffic in this scenario.
Question No 5:
Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for a static route to be considered active in a routing table? (Choose three.)
A. The next-hop IP address is reachable.
B. There is no alternative route with a lower administrative distance to the same destination.
C. The link health monitor, if configured, indicates that the route is healthy.
D. The next-hop IP address is within the range of one of the outgoing interface’s subnets.
E. The outgoing interface is operational and up.
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
For a static route to be considered active in a router’s routing table, it must meet specific conditions to ensure that the route is valid, functional, and ready to be used for forwarding packets. Here are the necessary conditions:
A. The next-hop IP address is reachable:
The next-hop IP address is crucial for the static route to function. The next-hop address is the next device (typically a router) that packets will be forwarded to in order to reach their destination. If this next-hop address is not reachable, there is no valid path for the packets, and the static route will be inactive. For example, if the next-hop address is down or unreachable, the router cannot forward packets to that destination.
B. There is no alternative route with a lower administrative distance to the same destination:
Administrative distance (AD) is a measure of the trustworthiness of a route. Static routes have an AD of 1, which generally makes them more preferred than dynamically learned routes that typically have a higher AD. If there is another route to the same destination with a lower AD (such as a dynamically learned route), the router will prioritize the route with the lower AD, making the static route inactive. Thus, for a static route to be active, it must not have a competing route with a lower AD.
E. The outgoing interface is operational and up:
For the static route to be used, the interface defined in the route must be operational and up. If the outgoing interface is down (e.g., a network cable is unplugged or the interface has been administratively shut down), the router will not be able to forward traffic through that interface. Therefore, the static route will be inactive if the outgoing interface is not functioning.
Other conditions:
C. The link health monitor, if configured, indicates that the route is healthy:
While useful in some configurations, the health monitor is not a mandatory condition for a static route to be active. It is typically used in environments where a route’s health must be explicitly monitored, but the route can still be considered active without it if all other conditions are met.
D. The next-hop IP address is within the range of one of the outgoing interface’s subnets:
This condition is not a requirement for a static route to be considered active. While it is common for the next-hop address to be within the subnet of the outgoing interface, it is not strictly necessary for the static route to function. The router can route to an external next-hop address even if it's outside the outgoing interface's subnet, as long as the route is reachable.
In conclusion, for a static route to be considered active, it must meet the conditions of having a reachable next-hop address (A), no competing routes with a lower administrative distance (B), and an operational outgoing interface (E).
Question No 6:
An administrator has configured two FortiGate devices to operate in a High Availability (HA) cluster. During testing of the HA failover, the administrator notices that some network switches continue to direct traffic to the previous primary unit. In order to resolve this issue, the administrator decides to enable the link-failed-signal setting.
What is the correct explanation of how this command works?
A. Forces the former primary device to shut down all its non-heartbeat interfaces for one second during the failover process.
B. Sends an ARP packet to all connected devices, informing them that the HA virtual MAC address is now accessible through the new master unit after the failover.
C. Sends a link-failed signal to all connected devices.
D. Disables all non-heartbeat interfaces in all HA members for two seconds after a failover.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a FortiGate High Availability (HA) setup, when a failover occurs, the secondary unit becomes the master, and the network devices (such as switches) must be updated to reflect this change. However, there can be issues where network devices still direct traffic to the old primary unit because they are unaware of the failover. To resolve this, the link-failed-signal setting is used.
How the link-failed-signal works:
When the link-failed-signal is enabled, the new master unit in the HA cluster sends an ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) packet to all connected devices. This ARP packet informs the network devices that the HA virtual MAC address, which both units in the HA cluster share, is now accessible through the new master unit. This ensures that the network devices update their MAC address tables and begin sending traffic to the correct unit, preventing traffic from being directed to the previous primary unit.
Without this ARP update, devices like switches might continue to forward traffic to the former master unit, which is no longer the active device. This could cause traffic loss or delays. By sending the ARP update, the FortiGate units ensure that network devices route traffic to the new master, improving the failover process.
Now, let’s review the incorrect options:
A. Forces the former primary device to shut down all its non-heartbeat interfaces for one second during the failover process:
This is incorrect because the link-failed-signal command does not involve shutting down non-heartbeat interfaces on the former primary device. The command focuses on notifying the network devices of the new master unit.
C. Sends a link-failed signal to all connected devices:
While this might sound relevant, it is too vague and doesn’t accurately describe the process. The specific action taken is the sending of an ARP packet, not a generic “link-failed signal.”
D. Disables all non-heartbeat interfaces in all HA members for two seconds after a failover:
This option is incorrect because it suggests disabling interfaces, which is not the purpose of the link-failed-signal setting. The focus is on informing network devices via ARP packets.
In conclusion, the correct explanation is B: enabling the link-failed-signal forces the new master unit to send an ARP packet, notifying the network devices of the updated location for the HA virtual MAC address. This ensures traffic is directed to the correct unit after a failover.
Question No 7:
What are the necessary conditions for two FortiGate devices to successfully form an OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) adjacency? (Select three options.)
A. The IP addresses must be in the same subnet.
B. The Hello and Dead intervals must match.
C. The OSPF IP MTUs must be identical.
D. The OSPF peer IDs must match.
E. The OSPF costs must be identical.
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
For two FortiGate devices to establish an OSPF adjacency, they need to meet certain criteria to ensure they can properly exchange routing information and maintain a stable relationship. Let’s go through the required conditions:
IP Addresses Must Be in the Same Subnet (Option A):
For OSPF to function correctly, the devices must be able to communicate directly with each other over the network. This requires that the devices’ IP addresses are in the same subnet. If they are not in the same subnet, they won’t be able to send OSPF Hello packets to each other, which are the foundation for establishing OSPF adjacencies. Without these Hello packets, the OSPF process cannot initiate and the devices cannot form an OSPF neighbor relationship.
Hello and Dead Intervals Must Match (Option B):
The Hello interval in OSPF defines how often a router sends Hello packets to maintain communication with its neighbors. The Dead interval specifies how long a router waits without receiving Hello packets before it considers a neighbor to be down. These intervals must match on both devices for OSPF to successfully form an adjacency. If the intervals differ, the routers will not recognize each other as neighbors and will fail to establish the OSPF relationship.
OSPF IP MTUs Must Be Identical (Option C):
OSPF requires that the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) for OSPF packets is the same on both devices. If the MTUs are not identical, OSPF packets might be fragmented or discarded, preventing the successful establishment of the adjacency. This is important because OSPF packets can be large, and discrepancies in the MTU sizes can lead to communication failures.
Why the other options are incorrect:
OSPF Peer IDs (Option D):
The OSPF peer IDs do not need to match for devices to form an adjacency. Peer IDs are used in OSPF to uniquely identify neighbors, but the peer IDs are not a critical factor in establishing the adjacency. What matters are the IP addresses, timers, and MTUs as described above.
OSPF Costs (Option E):
The OSPF cost is a metric used to determine the best path to a destination and does not need to be identical between OSPF neighbors to form an adjacency. The cost might vary depending on the device's interface configurations and link speeds, but it does not affect the ability to form a neighbor relationship.
In conclusion, the conditions for forming a successful OSPF adjacency between two FortiGate devices are that their IP addresses must be in the same subnet, their Hello and Dead intervals must match, and their OSPF IP MTUs must be identical.
Question No 8:
What is the primary function of the FortiGate device in a Security Fabric architecture?
A) To provide secure VPN access for remote users.
B) To serve as a security gateway for inspecting traffic.
C) To monitor and control access to web applications.
D) To manage authentication for network users.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a Security Fabric architecture, the FortiGate device acts as a central security gateway, inspecting and controlling network traffic. It is responsible for filtering malicious traffic, enforcing security policies, and protecting against external threats. FortiGate devices are designed to provide comprehensive security, including features like intrusion prevention, firewall protection, and antivirus scanning. These devices work together with other Fortinet products in the Security Fabric to offer an integrated, multi-layered security solution. While FortiGate can also support VPN access and web filtering, its primary role in the Security Fabric is to secure the network by inspecting traffic, identifying potential threats, and ensuring compliance with security policies.
Question No 9:
How does the FortiAnalyzer enhance the security operations in a Fortinet environment?
A) By controlling the deployment of FortiGate devices across the network.
B) By providing real-time monitoring and log analysis for all Fortinet devices.
C) By optimizing the performance of the FortiGate firewall.
D) By enabling remote access to the network for management.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FortiAnalyzer plays a crucial role in a Fortinet environment by providing real-time log analysis and monitoring capabilities for all Fortinet devices. It aggregates and analyzes logs from devices such as FortiGate, FortiMail, FortiWeb, and FortiSIEM, allowing security teams to gain insights into the network's security posture. By correlating events and analyzing security logs, FortiAnalyzer helps identify threats, vulnerabilities, and compliance issues. Additionally, it offers advanced reporting features, which assist in forensic investigations and audits. Its centralized management of logs allows for more efficient troubleshooting and response to security incidents. This enhances overall security operations by ensuring visibility and control over the entire network.
Question No 10:
What is the purpose of FortiAuthenticator in a Fortinet security solution?
A) To provide network traffic analysis and optimization.
B) To authenticate users and enforce identity-based security policies.
C) To filter malicious web traffic and prevent access to harmful websites.
D) To enable multi-site VPN communication between FortiGate devices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FortiAuthenticator is used in a Fortinet security solution to authenticate users and enforce identity-based security policies. It integrates with FortiGate firewalls to manage user identities and provide secure access to network resources based on user credentials. FortiAuthenticator supports various authentication methods, including two-factor authentication (2FA), single sign-on (SSO), and certificate-based authentication. By verifying the identity of users, FortiAuthenticator ensures that only authorized personnel can access critical network resources, which is crucial for enhancing security and preventing unauthorized access. It also works in conjunction with other Fortinet devices to apply more granular security controls based on user identity and device posture.
