Fortinet NSE7_LED-7.0 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
Which statements accurately describe how FortiManager CLI scripts perform bulk configuration changes? (Select two.)
A. Any updates to the Policy Package within an ADOM are immediately applied to the connected FortiGate devices.
B. Configuration changes made in the Device Database require the use of the installation wizard to be pushed to FortiGate devices.
C. Bulk changes applied to all FortiGate devices within an ADOM are deployed instantly without updating the revision history.
D. Direct changes made on a remote FortiGate do not allow administrators to review the modifications before they take effect.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
FortiManager allows administrators to perform bulk configuration changes on FortiGate devices in a structured and controlled way. Let’s break down each option:
Option A is incorrect because updates made to the Policy Package within an ADOM (Administrative Domain) are not immediately applied to the connected FortiGate devices. The changes made in the policy package need to be committed and then installed to the connected devices, and this process requires the installation wizard or manual push, which means the changes are not applied instantly.
Option B is correct. When configuration changes are made in the Device Database (which stores device-specific information), these changes require the installation wizard to push them to FortiGate devices. The installation wizard helps manage the deployment of these configuration changes, ensuring they are reviewed and applied correctly.
Option C is incorrect because bulk changes applied to all FortiGate devices within an ADOM are not deployed instantly. When using FortiManager to make changes across multiple devices, administrators are prompted to review and approve the changes. Additionally, each change is tracked and requires an installation process that is recorded in the revision history. Therefore, the changes are not deployed instantly without the revision history being updated.
Option D is correct. Direct changes made on a remote FortiGate device do not allow administrators to review the modifications before they are applied. This means that any direct changes made directly on the device will take effect immediately without the opportunity for review. This is a contrast to making changes through FortiManager, where modifications can be reviewed before being installed on the FortiGate.
In conclusion, B and D are correct because they reflect the need for the installation wizard to push changes from the Device Database and the fact that direct changes to a FortiGate device do not provide an opportunity for administrators to review them before they are applied.
Question 2:
Which functions are performed by the Install Wizard in FortiManager? (Select two.)
A. Display pending configuration changes before applying them to devices.
B. Register new FortiGate devices with FortiManager.
C. Retrieve policy packages from managed FortiGate devices.
D. Deploy configuration updates to managed FortiGate devices.
E. Fetch interface mapping data from managed devices.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The Install Wizard in FortiManager is used to facilitate the process of applying and managing configuration changes across FortiGate devices. It provides a structured workflow to ensure that all changes are reviewed and deployed effectively. Let’s break down each option:
Option A is correct because the Install Wizard allows administrators to review pending configuration changes before they are applied to the managed devices. This helps ensure that all changes are properly evaluated and tested before they are installed, allowing for safe and controlled deployment of new configurations.
Option B is incorrect because the Install Wizard does not perform device registration. New FortiGate devices are registered with FortiManager via other means, such as manually adding the device to the Device Database or using auto-discovery features, not through the Install Wizard.
Option C is incorrect. Retrieving policy packages from managed FortiGate devices is a task that is typically done using other features of FortiManager. For example, administrators can fetch a policy package from a FortiGate device by selecting the device and using the Retrieve feature, but this is not directly related to the function of the Install Wizard.
Option D is correct. The Install Wizard is used to deploy configuration updates to managed FortiGate devices. Once configuration changes are prepared and reviewed, the Install Wizard can be used to push those changes to devices, ensuring the correct configurations are applied.
Option E is incorrect because fetching interface mapping data from managed devices is not a task performed by the Install Wizard. Interface mapping data is typically retrieved via other management features in FortiManager, such as device discovery or interface configuration settings, but not during the installation process.
In summary, A and D are correct because they reflect the Install Wizard's role in reviewing pending changes and deploying configuration updates to FortiGate devices, ensuring configuration changes are applied properly and safely.
Question 3:
To monitor ESP traffic between two FortiGate units where no NAT exists between them, which command should the administrator use?
A. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500"
B. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 4500"
C. diagnose sniffer packet any "esp"
D. diagnose sniffer packet any "udp port 500 or udp port 4500"
Answer: C
Explanation:
To monitor ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) traffic, the administrator needs to capture traffic associated with the IPsec VPN communication, specifically the ESP packets.
Option A is incorrect. The UDP port 500 is used for IKE (Internet Key Exchange) traffic, which is involved in establishing VPN connections and negotiating keys but does not directly carry ESP traffic. Therefore, this command would not capture the ESP traffic between two FortiGate units.
Option B is incorrect. UDP port 4500 is used for NAT-Traversal (NAT-T), a method used to encapsulate IPsec traffic when there is a NAT device between the VPN peers. While useful for environments with NAT, it does not directly relate to monitoring ESP traffic between two FortiGate units where no NAT exists.
Option C is correct. The ESP protocol is identified by the ESP protocol number (50), and using the command diagnose sniffer packet any "esp" allows the administrator to capture the ESP packets between the two FortiGate units. ESP is used to encapsulate the actual data being transmitted between the VPN peers in an IPsec tunnel.
Option D is incorrect because UDP ports 500 and 4500 are for IKE and NAT-T traffic, not ESP traffic. Therefore, this command would capture the IKE or NAT-T traffic but not the actual ESP payload of the VPN connection.
In conclusion, C is the correct command as it captures ESP traffic, which is what the administrator needs to monitor between the two FortiGate units.
Question 4:
Which conditions must be true for a static route to become active in the routing table? (Select three.)
A. The next-hop IP address is reachable.
B. No alternative route exists with a lower administrative distance.
C. The route’s link health monitor (if set up) is operational.
D. The next-hop IP belongs to the same subnet as the egress interface.
E. The interface specified in the route is currently up.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
For a static route to become active in the routing table, several conditions must be met to ensure that the route is valid and usable. Let’s break down the options:
Option A is correct. The next-hop IP address must be reachable for the static route to be valid. If the next-hop IP is unreachable, the route cannot be used, and the traffic cannot be forwarded through it. The reachability of the next-hop is typically determined by the system's routing table and connectivity checks.
Option B is incorrect. The existence of alternative routes with a lower administrative distance will cause the static route to be overridden by the more preferred route. However, this condition does not necessarily prevent the static route from becoming active if there is no lower administrative distance route. What matters is the reachability and availability of the next-hop and the egress interface.
Option C is correct. If the link health monitor is configured for the static route, it must be operational for the route to be active. The link health monitor ensures that the static route only becomes active if the link status is healthy. If the health monitor detects an issue, it will prevent the route from being used until the link is restored.
Option D is incorrect. The next-hop IP does not necessarily need to belong to the same subnet as the egress interface. In fact, it is common for the next-hop IP to be in a different subnet, especially in cases where the route points to a gateway. The critical requirement is that the next-hop IP is reachable via the specified interface.
Option E is correct. The interface specified in the static route must be currently up for the static route to become active. If the interface is down, the route cannot be used, even if the next-hop IP is reachable.
In conclusion, the correct conditions for a static route to become active are A, C, and E because they ensure that the route is reachable, healthy, and the associated interface is up.
Question 5:
When enabling the link-failed-signal setting in a FortiGate HA cluster, what is the resulting behavior during failover?
A. Temporarily disables all non-heartbeat ports on the previous primary unit for one second during failover.
B. Broadcasts an ARP message to inform connected devices that the virtual MAC is now associated with the new primary unit.
C. Sends a generic link failure alert to all connected switches and routers.
D. Disables all non-heartbeat interfaces on every HA unit for two seconds after a failover.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The link-failed-signal setting in a FortiGate HA (High Availability) cluster controls how the cluster behaves during a failover event, particularly in terms of interface behavior. Let’s break down each option:
Option A is correct. When link-failed-signal is enabled, the previous primary unit will temporarily disable all non-heartbeat ports for one second during a failover. This helps prevent traffic from being sent on interfaces that are no longer active, reducing the risk of traffic being forwarded through an interface that has failed or is no longer part of the active unit. This behavior ensures a clean failover, with minimal disruption to network traffic.
Option B is incorrect. Broadcasting an ARP message to inform connected devices of the new primary unit’s virtual MAC address is a separate process involved in ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) updates. While this action may occur during a failover, it is not the primary result of enabling the link-failed-signal setting. ARP updates are typically handled by the FortiGate cluster’s failover process to ensure that connected devices update their MAC address cache.
Option C is incorrect. A generic link failure alert is not the expected behavior when enabling the link-failed-signal setting. The link-failed-signal primarily focuses on interface behavior, not on sending generic alerts. Alerts related to link failures are usually part of other configurations, such as link monitoring or logging.
Option D is incorrect. Disabling all non-heartbeat interfaces on every HA unit for two seconds after a failover is not the behavior defined by the link-failed-signal setting. While interface management during failover is a critical part of HA operation, the link-failed-signal specifically causes a one-second delay on the previous primary unit’s non-heartbeat ports, not a two-second delay across all units.
In conclusion, the correct answer is A, as the link-failed-signal setting ensures that non-heartbeat ports on the previous primary unit are temporarily disabled during a failover to prevent traffic forwarding on inactive interfaces.
Question 6:
You are designing an MC-LAG pair of FortiSwitches managed by a FortiGate active-passive HA cluster. Which two requirements must be met for nonstop Layer-2 forwarding during an HA failover? (Choose 2.)
A. Enable IGMP-Snooping Proxy on both FortiSwitch MC-LAG peers.
B. Configure identical I-CL (Inter-Chassis Link) trunks between the switches.
C. Set FortiLink-split-interface under config system ha on both FortiGates.
D. Assign the same FortiLink MAC address override on each HA member.
E. Enable MCLAG-peer-sync on the FortiSwitches and set the role to aggregate-isid.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
To achieve nonstop Layer-2 forwarding during an HA failover with an MC-LAG (Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation) pair of FortiSwitches managed by a FortiGate active-passive HA cluster, specific requirements must be met to ensure the forwarding path remains uninterrupted when a failover occurs. Let’s analyze each option:
Option A is incorrect. IGMP-Snooping Proxy is used for optimizing multicast traffic by snooping on IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) messages. While useful in multicast environments, it is not a requirement for ensuring nonstop Layer-2 forwarding during an HA failover in this specific scenario.
Option B is correct. Identical I-CL (Inter-Chassis Link) trunks between the switches are necessary to maintain link aggregation and ensure seamless traffic forwarding during failover events. The I-CL trunk establishes communication between the FortiSwitches, allowing them to function as a single logical switch. For nonstop Layer-2 forwarding, both switches in the MC-LAG pair must have identical trunks, as this ensures both switches can share state information and continue forwarding traffic even during a failover.
Option C is incorrect. The FortiLink-split-interface setting is used in scenarios where FortiLink interfaces need to be split across multiple FortiGates. While it may be part of a larger FortiGate HA configuration, it is not directly related to ensuring nonstop Layer-2 forwarding in an MC-LAG scenario with FortiSwitches.
Option D is correct. Assigning the same FortiLink MAC address override on each HA member ensures that the MAC address used for FortiLink interfaces is the same across both FortiGate HA units. This is crucial for maintaining Layer-2 consistency across both HA units during failover, ensuring that traffic continues to flow without disruption.
Option E is incorrect. MCLAG-peer-sync is used for synchronizing the configuration of the two FortiSwitches in an MC-LAG setup. However, setting the role to aggregate-isid is not directly tied to ensuring nonstop Layer-2 forwarding during a failover. The MC-LAG pair must synchronize its configuration and states, but this option is not a direct requirement for nonstop forwarding.
In conclusion, B and D are the correct answers because they ensure the link aggregation between the FortiSwitches is consistent and that the MAC address used for FortiLink interfaces remains consistent across both HA members, allowing nonstop Layer-2 forwarding during a failover.
Question 7:
A customer wants to use 802.1X with dynamic VLAN assignment on FortiSwitch access ports managed by FortiGate. Which two RADIUS attributes are required to place endpoints into the correct VLAN? (Choose 2.)
A. Tunnel-Medium-Type = IEEE-802
B. Framed-MTU = 1500
C. Egress-VLANID (Cisco-AV-Pair)
D. Tunnel-Private-Group-ID
E. NAS-Identifier
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
When using 802.1X with dynamic VLAN assignment on FortiSwitch access ports managed by FortiGate, specific RADIUS attributes are required to correctly assign endpoints to the appropriate VLAN. The attributes that control the VLAN assignment are crucial in ensuring that the connected devices are placed in the right VLAN based on their authentication status.
Option C is correct. The Egress-VLANID (sometimes referred to as Cisco-AV-Pair) is the RADIUS attribute that specifically designates the VLAN to which an authenticated device should be assigned. This attribute is typically used in Cisco-based environments but is also supported by FortiGate devices when performing dynamic VLAN assignment. The Egress-VLANID specifies the VLAN ID that should be applied to the port for the authenticated endpoint.
Option D is correct. The Tunnel-Private-Group-ID is another RADIUS attribute used for dynamic VLAN assignment. This attribute specifically defines the VLAN ID that should be associated with the port once the 802.1X authentication process completes. It is a standard RADIUS attribute used for VLAN assignment, and it plays a critical role in ensuring that the endpoint is placed in the correct VLAN dynamically.
Option A is incorrect. The Tunnel-Medium-Type attribute is used to specify the type of media that the tunnel is using (e.g., IEEE 802). While it’s important for some network protocols, it is not directly related to dynamic VLAN assignment through 802.1X.
Option B is incorrect. The Framed-MTU attribute specifies the maximum transmission unit (MTU) size that the endpoint is allowed to use, but it does not determine the VLAN assignment. This attribute is related to network frame size and is not relevant for VLAN placement.
Option E is incorrect. The NAS-Identifier is used to uniquely identify a network access server (NAS) in RADIUS communication. While it plays a role in authentication, it is not used for VLAN assignment.
In conclusion, C and D are the correct answers because they are the attributes directly related to dynamic VLAN assignment in a FortiGate-managed FortiSwitch setup using 802.1X.
Question 8:
After adding a new standalone FortiSwitch to a FortiGate FortiLink network, you notice LLDP neighbors are discovered but the switch does not appear under Managed FortiSwitch. Which two troubleshooting commands reveal the registration issue? (Choose 2.)
A. diagnose switch-controller managed-switch list on the FortiGate
B. execute switch-controller get-join-path <mac> on the FortiGate
C. get system interface physical on the FortiSwitch
D. diagnose lldp neighbors on the FortiGate
E. execute switch-controller switch-info <sn> on the FortiSwitch
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
When a standalone FortiSwitch is added to a FortiGate FortiLink network, there are several troubleshooting steps to ensure that the switch properly registers under Managed FortiSwitch. If LLDP neighbors are discovered but the switch does not appear under Managed FortiSwitch, this suggests that there may be a registration issue or misconfiguration. The following commands can help diagnose the issue.
Option A is correct. The diagnose switch-controller managed-switch list command on the FortiGate allows you to view the list of switches that are currently managed by the FortiGate. This can help determine if the newly added FortiSwitch is listed or if there is an issue preventing the switch from being added. If the switch is not listed, this suggests a registration or configuration issue that needs further investigation.
Option B is correct. The execute switch-controller get-join-path <mac> command on the FortiGate provides detailed information about the process by which a FortiSwitch joins the FortiLink network. This can help identify where the registration process is failing. For instance, if the switch is not able to join due to a configuration issue, this command can provide insights into the failure.
Option C is incorrect. The get system interface physical command on the FortiSwitch shows the status of the physical interfaces but does not directly help in identifying the registration issue with FortiLink. It would be useful for general connectivity troubleshooting but not for FortiSwitch registration specifically.
Option D is incorrect. The diagnose lldp neighbors command on the FortiGate shows LLDP information about neighboring devices but does not provide direct information about whether a FortiSwitch is successfully registered under the FortiGate's management. While LLDP can help verify that the physical connection is active, it does not address registration issues.
Option E is incorrect. The execute switch-controller switch-info <sn> command on the FortiSwitch provides information about the switch’s configuration and operational status but does not help with diagnosing registration issues specifically in the FortiGate's FortiLink management.
In conclusion, the correct commands for revealing the registration issue are A and B, as they directly help in identifying whether the FortiSwitch is registered under the FortiGate and pinpointing any issues in the registration process.
Question 9
Which two FortiSwitch security features can be enforced without requiring 802.1X supplicants on end-user devices? (Choose 2.)
A. MAC-based authentication with RADIUS fallback
B. Sticky MAC port security with violation shutdown
C. Dynamic Firewall ACLs downloaded via CoA
D. DHCP Snooping with trusted port definitions
E. Port Isolation using private-VLAN edge
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
FortiSwitch provides several security features that can be enforced without the need for 802.1X supplicants on the end-user devices. These mechanisms are useful in environments where 802.1X is not feasible or where it is not desired to rely on device-side authentication. Here’s how the options work:
Option A is correct. MAC-based authentication with RADIUS fallback is a method of enforcing security without requiring an 802.1X supplicant. It works by authenticating the device based on its MAC address, and if the authentication fails (for example, if the device does not respond with the correct credentials), the RADIUS fallback process will apply a default security profile. This feature allows devices without 802.1X support to still authenticate and be granted access to the network based on their MAC address.
Option B is correct. Sticky MAC port security with violation shutdown is another effective security feature that does not require 802.1X. This feature binds the MAC address to a port for the duration of the session. If a different device with a different MAC address is detected on that port, it triggers a violation, which can shut down the port or apply other configured actions. This approach helps prevent unauthorized devices from connecting without requiring 802.1X.
Option C is incorrect. Dynamic Firewall ACLs downloaded via CoA (Change of Authorization) is an advanced feature used for dynamically modifying firewall rules during or after authentication. However, it typically works in environments with 802.1X supplicants, as it requires the initial authentication process to take place. Without 802.1X, this feature would not function in the same way, as the authentication process is needed to trigger ACL downloads.
Option D is incorrect. DHCP Snooping with trusted port definitions is used to secure the network from rogue DHCP servers by tracking which ports on the switch are trusted to offer DHCP services. While DHCP snooping is important for network security, it does not inherently authenticate end-user devices without 802.1X.
Option E is incorrect. Port Isolation using private-VLAN edge is a security feature that isolates devices on the same VLAN from each other, providing a higher level of privacy between devices. While useful for segmentation, it does not involve authentication of devices or require 802.1X, but rather works based on VLAN configurations.
In summary, A and B are the correct answers because they both enforce security without the need for 802.1X supplicants.
Question 10
In a large Layer-2 campus, you must prevent an accidental loop when a rogue switch is connected to an access port. Which two FortiSwitch mechanisms help mitigate this risk automatically? (Choose 2.)
A. BPDU Guard that err-disables the port on BPDU reception
B. Root-Guard applied globally under STP settings
C. Loop Guard enabling recovery timer after loop detection
D. LLDP-MED location-based policy enforcement
E. UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection) aggressive mode on downlinks
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
To prevent network loops when a rogue switch is accidentally connected to an access port, FortiSwitch offers several mechanisms that help mitigate this risk. The two mechanisms that directly address loop prevention and response are:
Option A is correct. BPDU Guard is a feature designed to prevent accidental loops caused by rogue switches. When a port configured with BPDU Guard receives Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) (which are used for Spanning Tree Protocol), the port is automatically err-disabled. This helps prevent the rogue switch from participating in the spanning tree and causing a loop, which is a common issue in Layer-2 networks. BPDU Guard is an effective mechanism to stop switches from introducing loops due to misconfiguration or a rogue device.
Option B is correct. Root-Guard is a feature that prevents a rogue switch from becoming the root bridge in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) topology. When Root-Guard is enabled globally, it ensures that only trusted switches can participate in becoming the root bridge. If a rogue switch tries to send BPDUs that would alter the root bridge election, Root-Guard will block those BPDUs and prevent the rogue switch from affecting the network topology.
Option C is incorrect. Loop Guard is a feature that helps prevent network loops by ensuring that blocked ports do not incorrectly transition to a forwarding state. However, it is typically used to handle situations where network topology changes or network failures could cause loops. It is not specifically designed to prevent loops from rogue switches, which is the focus of this question.
Option D is incorrect. LLDP-MED (Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Endpoint Discovery) is a protocol that helps with network device discovery and does not directly prevent loops. While it can provide useful information about network devices and topology, it does not help prevent accidental loops from rogue switches.
Option E is incorrect. UDLD (Unidirectional Link Detection) aggressive mode is used to detect and disable unidirectional links, which can be caused by cable issues or misconfigurations. While UDLD helps ensure proper link communication, it is not designed specifically to prevent accidental loops from rogue switches.
In conclusion, the correct answers are A and B, as BPDU Guard and Root-Guard are the primary mechanisms to prevent accidental loops caused by rogue switches in a Layer-2 network.
