NetSuite NetSuite Administrator Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
What is the initial access level granted to users in the standard Vendor Center role for viewing Purchase Orders in QuickBooks Online?
A. Full
B. View
C. Edit
D. Create
Answer: B. View
Explanation:
In QuickBooks Online, access permissions are predefined based on the role assigned to each user. One such role is the standard Vendor Center role, which is tailored for individuals or external parties that manage vendor-related interactions, such as monitoring bills, payments, and purchase orders. Each role outlines what the user can or cannot do within the platform, helping safeguard critical data and operations.
When it comes to Purchase Orders, the standard Vendor Center role is configured with a default access level of View. This means users with this role are restricted to observing or checking purchase orders but are prohibited from modifying, generating, or removing them. The rationale behind this limitation is rooted in ensuring data integrity and minimizing the risk of unauthorized actions.
The View access is particularly appropriate for vendors or collaborators who need visibility into transactions without having authority to intervene. It provides transparency without compromising control.
Let’s review the remaining options:
Full access grants complete control, enabling the user to create, edit, and delete purchase orders. This level of access is usually reserved for internal personnel such as administrators or finance managers.
Edit permission allows modifications to existing purchase orders but does not include the capability to create or delete them. It is typically assigned to users involved in procurement or logistics who manage ongoing orders.
Create permission enables users to initiate new purchase orders. However, this action is limited in the Vendor Center role to prevent external users from introducing new transactional data.
Thus, the default View permission in the Vendor Center provides a measured balance, offering sufficient oversight without risking accidental or unauthorized modifications.
Question No 2:
Which of the following best describes the nature of Parent-Child relationships between custom records in a CRM system like NetSuite?
A. A custom Child record can only have one Parent record.
B. A custom Parent record must be created before custom Child records can be created.
C. A custom Child record can appear as a subtab on a standard record.
D. A custom Child record can only have a custom record as its Parent.
Answer: A. A custom Child record can only have one Parent record.
Explanation:
Parent-Child relationships in NetSuite and similar CRM systems are critical to maintaining an organized and relational data structure. These relationships enable records to be linked hierarchically, with each Child record associated with one Parent, facilitating clearer data modeling and better workflow management.
A. A custom Child record can only have one Parent record. This is the correct and most accurate statement. In standard data modeling practices within NetSuite, a Child record refers back to a single Parent. For example, a "Job" (Child) might belong to one "Customer" (Parent). This one-to-one linkage at the child level ensures clean relational mapping and simplifies reporting and data consistency.
B. A custom Parent record must be created before custom Child records can be created. This statement is misleading. While a Parent record is typically required to assign a relationship, some systems allow a Child record to be created independently and then linked to a Parent later. It is not mandatory to have the Parent created beforehand in all cases.
C. A custom Child record can appear as a subtab on a standard record. This is incorrect. In most CRM interfaces, the Parent record hosts the subtab listing related Child records—not the other way around.
D. A custom Child record can only have a custom record as its Parent. This is not accurate either. Child records can be related to standard records, such as vendors or customers, as long as the system supports such associations.
Establishing these relationships enables robust data tracking, improved navigation, and enhanced customization, especially for large organizations needing structured data hierarchies.
Question No 3:
Which configuration setting in Salesforce allows custom records of the same type to be linked together in a hierarchical structure?
A. Record is Parent
B. Record is Child
C. Allow Child Record Editing
D. Hierarchy
Answer: D. Hierarchy
Explanation:
In Salesforce, the Hierarchy setting is fundamental when creating relationships between records of the same object type. This allows you to build organizational structures or layered systems such as territory management, business units, or other record types where a self-referencing hierarchy is beneficial.
When you enable the Hierarchy option on a custom object, Salesforce allows one record to reference another of the same type as its Parent. This mechanism creates a parent-child structure within the same object, enabling dynamic visibility into multi-tiered relationships. For example, in a custom "Department" object, you can designate one department as the parent of another, thus building a tree of relationships.
Let’s examine the incorrect choices:
A. Record is Parent simply defines a record's status but does not establish or activate a hierarchical link.
B. Record is Child has similar limitations, as it implies a role in a relationship without enabling or enforcing the relationship structure.
C. Allow Child Record Editing pertains to user permissions, not structural relationships between records.
The Hierarchy option is invaluable when visualizing nested relationships, automating flows based on record lineage, or developing roll-up summaries and reporting chains. It supports clearer workflows and broader strategic insights in systems relying on self-referential structures.
Question No 4:
Where can users preview and customize which elements within a bundle will be installed before finalizing the installation process?
A. Bundle Searches Overview Page
B. Installation Process Status Page
C. Bundle Details Page
D. Preview Bundle Install Page
Answer: D. Preview Bundle Install Page
Explanation:
When working with bundles—collections of features, scripts, or customizations—within platforms like NetSuite, it is important to assess what is included before installation. The Preview Bundle Install Page offers this capability by providing a comprehensive preview of the objects and configurations that are packaged within a bundle.
This page acts as a checkpoint before installation begins, giving users the opportunity to evaluate what will be added to their environment. It often includes settings and options that allow users to deselect specific components, review custom scripts, or assess dependencies. This preview step is crucial to avoid conflicts, redundancy, or installing unnecessary elements that may interfere with existing customizations.
Now, let’s clarify why the other options are not suitable:
A. Bundle Searches Overview Page is primarily used to locate and browse available bundles. It does not display internal contents or allow configuration.
B. Installation Process Status Page becomes relevant after the installation process has already started. It tracks progress rather than offering control over what will be installed.
C. Bundle Details Page provides metadata and general information about the bundle, like name, version, and developer. It doesn’t give control over individual object installation preferences.
By contrast, the Preview Bundle Install Page is where all meaningful customization and last-minute validation happen. It is essential for safe, intentional deployments in environments where system integrity and compatibility must be maintained.
Question No 5:
Which action should an Administrator take to compile a list of employees who have changed supervisors within the past 30 days?
A. Generate an Employee search and filter using Last Month on the Results tab
B. Run the Employee Change History report and apply the Last Month filter in the Date field
C. Create an Employee search with Supervisor and Date fields added to the Results tab
D. Run the Employee Change History report and set the Date filter to Today
Answer: B. Run the Employee Change History report and apply the Last Month filter in the Date field
Explanation:
To determine which employees have recently been reassigned to a new supervisor, the most reliable method is to use the Employee Change History report. This tool provides a comprehensive record of modifications made to employee profiles, including changes to supervisory relationships. By applying the “Last Month” filter in the date field, the Administrator can narrow the data to reflect only changes that occurred within the previous 30 days. This approach ensures the report includes only the relevant time frame and avoids unnecessary data.
Other options are less suitable. Option A, though it allows for filtering, focuses primarily on the current status of employees rather than historical data. Option C might include supervisor data but doesn’t track or display past changes, so it would miss reassignments that have already occurred. Option D, while it uses the correct report, is too limited in scope since selecting “Today” would only capture changes made on the current day, not over a 30-day span.
Using the Employee Change History report with the correct date range enables administrators to make informed decisions, monitor employee movements effectively, and maintain accurate organizational records.
Question No 6:
Which Display Type should be selected for a custom field to allow users to enter or modify data within the system?
A. Enabled
B. Normal
C. Inline Text
D. Show
Answer: B. Normal
Explanation:
When configuring custom fields within a system, especially in enterprise resource platforms or form-based applications, choosing the correct display type is critical for ensuring a seamless user experience. The Normal display type is explicitly designed to allow users to interact with the field—meaning they can enter, update, or change data as needed. This makes it the default and most appropriate option for editable fields.
Fields set to Normal are rendered with input elements such as text boxes, dropdown menus, date pickers, or checkboxes, depending on the field's configuration. This level of interactivity supports workflows where dynamic data entry is required. Whether users are filling out forms, editing records, or inputting transactional details, a Normal display type ensures that the field is both visible and editable. It maintains a balance between user control and system validation.
In contrast, other display types offer limited or no interactivity.
Option A: Enabled may imply that the field is active in terms of system processing, but it does not necessarily translate to user-facing editability. An “enabled” field might still appear locked or non-editable on the user interface unless explicitly set to Normal.
Option C: Inline Text serves as a non-editable static content field, often used for brief instructions, labels, or notes embedded within forms or records. It contributes to user guidance but doesn’t support data entry.
Option D: Show refers to a read-only state where users can see the content of the field but cannot alter it. This is suitable for displaying calculated values or reference data that should remain unchanged by the user.
Selecting the wrong display type can introduce friction into business processes. For example, if a form field intended for capturing a user’s comment is mistakenly set to Show, users will not be able to provide input, which could delay approvals or require administrative intervention. Similarly, if an important feedback field is set to Inline Text, the user will see it as uneditable, leading to potential confusion.
To promote efficient and accurate data capture, the Normal display type is essential. It not only allows users to interact freely with the system but also supports automation, record tracking, and audit capabilities tied to editable entries. This ensures the integrity of workflows where real-time user input is necessary.
Question No 7:
Which statement correctly describes how encrypted fields, such as credit card numbers, behave in Saved Searches?
A. Encrypted fields can only appear in encrypted form
B. Encrypted fields are excluded from Saved Search results
C. Encrypted fields can serve as summary fields
D. Encrypted fields can be used in filters with limited operator options
Answer: D. Encrypted fields can be used in filters with limited operator options
Explanation:
Encrypted fields are designed to secure sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, social security numbers, and other confidential information, by rendering it unreadable to unauthorized users. However, in system processes like Saved Searches, encrypted fields are handled with certain restrictions to ensure that security and privacy are maintained while still allowing for data filtering.
Encrypted fields can be used in Saved Searches, but their use is limited in that they can only be filtered with a narrow set of operators. For example, an encrypted field can be used in filters that allow exact matches (e.g., “is” or “is not”), but more complex comparisons such as “greater than” or “contains” are typically prohibited. This restriction is in place to prevent unauthorized data exposure and ensure that sensitive information is not inadvertently revealed or manipulated in an insecure manner.
Option A is partially correct in that encrypted fields remain encrypted, but it doesn’t capture the full picture. The key point is that the field can still be used in searches, but only under specific conditions. Option B is incorrect because encrypted fields are not excluded from Saved Search results entirely. They can be included in the search results, but their values are obscured. Option C is also incorrect, as encrypted fields cannot be used as summary fields for aggregation purposes. This is because the system cannot interpret or aggregate the encrypted data.
The proper handling of encrypted fields in Saved Searches ensures that sensitive data is protected while still being useful for data filtering and reporting. This balance between usability and security is crucial in maintaining compliance with data protection regulations such as GDPR or PCI DSS, which govern the handling of sensitive personal information.
Question No 8:
How can an organization effectively control employee access to files stored in File Cabinet folders?
A. Restrict access based on employee roles
B. Set folders to Private so only the creator can access them
C. Limit access to folders without restricting individual files
D. Control access to each document individually within the folder
Answer: A. Restrict access based on employee roles
Explanation:
Managing access to sensitive files stored within an organization's File Cabinet folders is a critical aspect of maintaining security, confidentiality, and proper compliance. One of the most efficient and scalable methods of controlling access is to restrict access based on employee roles. This approach allows administrators to set up specific access levels based on an employee’s position, department, or function within the organization.
By assigning roles such as Admin, Manager, or Employee, administrators can define clear access control policies for each user group. This method ensures that sensitive files are only accessible to employees who need them to perform their job functions, which helps prevent unauthorized access and data breaches. Role-based access control (RBAC) is a widely used and proven strategy for managing file access in organizations of all sizes.
Option B, making folders Private, while it might seem like a secure solution, offers limited flexibility and is not ideal for collaborative environments where multiple team members may need access to the same set of files. This setting restricts access to only the folder’s creator, which may hinder productivity and teamwork.
Option C, limiting access to the folders but not the individual files, creates a situation where an entire folder is accessible to certain users, but this broad access doesn’t provide the granularity needed to protect specific files within the folder. This can lead to situations where sensitive documents are accessed by users who shouldn’t have permission.
Option D, controlling access to each document individually, can become cumbersome and impractical at scale. Managing individual file permissions can quickly turn into a time-consuming task, especially when dealing with large numbers of files and users.
By using role-based access, organizations can streamline the management of file permissions and ensure that security is maintained while also promoting productivity. This system ensures that the right people have access to the right documents at the right time, which is crucial for maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of organizational data.
Question No 9:
Which approach should an Administrator take to compile a list of employees who have transitioned to new supervisors in the last 30 days?
A. Create an Employee search and apply the "Last Month" filter under Results
B. Execute the Employee Change History report and filter by "Last Month" in the Date field
C. Generate an Employee search including Supervisor and Date fields under Results
D. Run the Employee Change History report and filter by "Today" in the Date field
Correct Answer: B. Execute the Employee Change History report and filter by "Last Month" in the Date field.
Explanation:
To generate a list of employees who have switched supervisors over the last 30 days, the Employee Change History report is the most effective tool. This report logs all significant changes made to an employee's profile, including supervisory changes. By applying the "Last Month" filter within the Date field, the administrator can narrow down the results to only those records that reflect changes made within the past 30 days, making the process precise and efficient.
The Employee Change History report captures all alterations to employee information, including the details of previous and new supervisors. This makes it far superior for tracking supervisor reassignments as compared to simply running a basic search.
In contrast, Option A, which uses the "Last Month" filter in an Employee search, will only show current employee statuses rather than tracking any historical changes in supervisor assignments. Option C focuses on using Supervisor and Date fields in an employee search, but this doesn’t provide a history of the changes themselves—it just reflects the current state. Option D limits the report to only today's changes, which is too narrow for the question’s requirement of a 30-day period.
Using the Employee Change History report with a Last Month filter provides an efficient and accurate way to track changes, ensuring that relevant data is gathered without manual cross-referencing.
Question No 10:
What Display Type should be selected to allow users to modify or enter data into a custom field?
A. Active
B. Editable
C. Inline Text
D. Visible
Correct Answer: B. Editable
Explanation:
When configuring a custom field, the Editable display type is the most appropriate choice to enable users to enter or modify data. This option ensures that the field is not only visible to users but also interactable, meaning users can directly input or update the information. It is commonly used in data entry forms and other systems where user interaction is necessary.
Option A, "Active," could imply a field is visible, but it doesn't specifically ensure that the field is editable or can be modified. Option C, "Inline Text," is generally used for static text or instructions and does not allow for user input. Option D, "Visible," ensures that the field is displayed but does not guarantee the ability to modify or interact with it.
Selecting Editable as the display type optimizes user experience by providing them with the flexibility to modify or input data as required, ensuring that the field functions effectively for data entry.
