CompTIA N10-009 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
Which tool is primarily used to graphically display the strength and effectiveness of wireless network signals in various areas of a building, helping network engineers identify coverage areas, weak spots, and potential interference?
A. Logical network diagram
B. Layer 3 network diagram
C. Service-level agreement (SLA)
D. Heat map
Correct Answer: D. Heat map
Explanation:
A heat map is a visual representation used to illustrate wireless signal strength and coverage within a given physical area such as a building, office, or warehouse. It is one of the most effective tools for network engineers during wireless network design, implementation, and troubleshooting.
In a heat map, different colors indicate varying levels of signal strength. Green typically signifies strong coverage, yellow indicates moderate signal strength, and red or gray marks areas with weak or no coverage. By analyzing this visual data, network administrators can identify well-covered zones and "dead spots" where signal strength is lacking, helping to plan the placement of wireless access points (APs) for optimal coverage.
Incorrect Options:
A. Logical diagram: This depicts network devices and their logical relationships, such as IP addressing and VLAN configuration, but does not visualize wireless signal coverage.
B. Layer 3 network diagram: Focuses on routing and IP communication, without showing physical signal strength or coverage.
C. Service-level agreement (SLA): Defines performance metrics between a service provider and client, unrelated to visualizing signal strength.
Thus, the most appropriate tool for illustrating wireless coverage is the heat map.
Question No 2:
Which cloud deployment model is most closely associated with multitenancy, where resources are shared among multiple independent users, and is typically managed by a third-party service provider over the internet?
A. Private Cloud
B. Community Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
Correct Answer: C. Public Cloud
Explanation:
The public cloud deployment model is the most commonly linked with multitenancy. It involves cloud services (such as computing power, storage, and networking) offered over the internet by third-party providers like Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud.
In this model, resources are shared among different customers (tenants), while maintaining data isolation for each tenant. The service provider owns and operates the infrastructure, while tenants can use the cloud resources without worrying about the underlying hardware.
Multitenancy allows for cost-effective scalability, as resources are pooled and shared by multiple users. This model supports pay-as-you-go pricing, making it ideal for businesses of all sizes, especially for startups or small enterprises that require flexible resource provisioning.
Incorrect Options:
A. Private Cloud: Dedicated to a single organization, offering more control but at a higher cost.
B. Community Cloud: Shared by several organizations with common concerns but not as commonly multitenant as public clouds.
D. Hybrid Cloud: Combines elements of public and private clouds, providing more flexibility but adding complexity.
The public cloud is the correct answer due to its shared, multitenant nature.
Question No 3:
A network administrator is configuring a Layer 3 switch to optimize traffic flow and enhance network segmentation. The goal is to segregate voice and data traffic across separate VLANs while allowing them to communicate. To achieve this, the administrator decides to use a Switched Virtual Interface (SVI).
What is the primary purpose of implementing an SVI in this scenario?
A. A physical interface used for trunking logical ports
B. A physical interface used for management access
C. A logical interface used for the routing of VLANs
D. A logical interface used when the number of physical ports is insufficient
Correct Answer: C. A logical interface used for the routing of VLANs
Explanation:
A Switched Virtual Interface (SVI) is a virtual interface configured on a Layer 3 switch, allowing it to perform routing for traffic between different VLANs. In the scenario described, the network administrator aims to separate voice and data traffic into different VLANs for better network management, security, and performance.
The SVI provides the default gateway for devices in the VLAN and handles inter-VLAN routing, meaning it enables communication between the different VLANs (such as voice and data VLANs). Without the SVI, devices in different VLANs would not be able to communicate with each other, as Layer 2 switches cannot route traffic between VLANs on their own.
An SVI eliminates the need for a physical router by allowing a Layer 3 switch to route traffic between VLANs. This simplifies network design and enhances efficiency.
Incorrect Options:
A. Physical interface for trunking: Trunking refers to the process of passing multiple VLANs over a single physical link, but an SVI is a logical interface used for routing, not for trunking.
B. Physical interface for management access: While an SVI can be used for management, it is primarily for routing traffic between VLANs.
D. Insufficient physical ports: The SVI does not address the number of physical ports but rather allows routing between VLANs on a Layer 3 device.
Thus, the SVI is a logical interface used for routing between VLANs, making option C the correct answer.
These rephrased questions and explanations should help reinforce your understanding of networking concepts, particularly related to wireless networking, cloud deployments, and Layer 3 switch configurations. Would you like more questions on this topic or another?
Question No 4:
A network administrator is upgrading a wireless network and deploying several wireless access points (APs) within the 2.4GHz frequency range. The administrator notices that the coverage areas of some APs overlap slightly. To optimize performance and prevent interference,
Which set of non-overlapping channels should the administrator select for configuring the 2.4GHz access points?
A. Channels 1, 3, 5
B. Channels 1, 6, 11
C. Channels 2, 6, 10
D. Channels 3, 6, 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In the 2.4GHz frequency band, each wireless channel spans 22 MHz, and channels are separated by only 5 MHz. This narrow spacing causes channels to overlap, which can result in interference unless properly configured. In North America, 11 channels are available for use in the 2.4GHz band (13 in other regions), but only three channels—1, 6, and 11—are spaced far enough apart to avoid interference.
When deploying multiple wireless access points (APs), it’s critical to avoid overlapping channels to maintain optimal performance. By assigning Channel 1 to one AP, Channel 6 to another, and Channel 11 to a third, you ensure that each AP operates on a separate frequency band with minimal risk of interference. This approach ensures that signal quality remains high, preventing issues like dropped connections, slower speeds, or congestion, especially in environments with many devices.
Other options are less optimal:
Option A (Channels 1, 3, 5) leads to overlap between channels, causing interference.
Option C (Channels 2, 6, 10) also causes interference due to proximity.
Option D (Channels 3, 6, 9) suffers from similar overlap and interference issues.
Therefore, Channels 1, 6, and 11 provide the best setup for maximizing performance and minimizing interference in a wireless network.
Question No 5:
Which type of network cable transmits data over short to medium distances by utilizing internal reflection, where light signals bounce off the inner cladding to efficiently propagate through the cable?
A. Twinaxial
B. Coaxial
C. Single-mode Fiber
D. Multimode Fiber
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Multimode fiber optic cables are designed to transmit data using light signals. These cables feature a larger core diameter (typically 50 or 62.5 micrometers) compared to single-mode fiber cables. This larger core allows multiple light rays (or "modes") to travel through the fiber simultaneously, each following a slightly different path. The light signals are internally reflected at the core-cladding boundary, which keeps the signal intact as it travels down the fiber.
This process, known as total internal reflection, is critical in multimode fibers, allowing the signals to stay within the core and travel over the fiber’s length. However, because multiple modes of light can travel at different speeds, modal dispersion can occur, which can distort the signal over long distances. As a result, multimode fiber is typically used for short to medium-distance communication, such as within data centers or enterprise networks.
In contrast:
Single-mode fiber (Option C) uses a smaller core to allow only one light path, enabling it to travel over longer distances without dispersion.
Coaxial cables (Option B) transmit electrical signals, not light signals.
Twinaxial cables (Option A) are used for short-distance, high-speed data transmission and also carry electrical signals.
Therefore, multimode fiber is the correct answer because it relies on light reflection within the core to efficiently transmit data over short to medium distances.
Question No 6:
A company has recently experienced several cyberattacks originating from external sources, and the network administrator needs to monitor and analyze these threats. However, the analysis must not introduce any latency or performance degradation to the live network traffic.
Which network security tool would be best for monitoring and analyzing these attacks without impacting network speed or performance?
A. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
C. Load Balancer
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
When analyzing network threats, particularly from external sources, the key is to choose a monitoring tool that doesn’t introduce any performance bottlenecks. In this scenario, an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is the most appropriate choice.
An IDS is a passive monitoring tool that inspects network traffic for signs of malicious activity or policy violations. It does not interfere with the flow of traffic; rather, it listens to a copy of the traffic (usually via a SPAN or mirror port on a switch) and alerts administrators when suspicious behavior is detected. Because the IDS operates outside the traffic flow, it does not add latency or affect network performance.
Other options have limitations:
Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) (Option A) are similar to IDS but are deployed inline and can actively block attacks. While this is effective for prevention, it can introduce latency as it inspects and potentially halts malicious traffic.
Firewalls (Option D) inspect traffic but are also deployed inline and can add latency during traffic inspection, potentially affecting performance.
Load Balancers (Option C) are designed to distribute traffic across multiple servers for availability and performance, but they are not used for monitoring or analyzing threats.
Therefore, the Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is the best tool for monitoring cyber threats without negatively affecting the network's speed or performance, providing valuable insights without compromising operational efficiency.
Question No 7:
A network technician is investigating a recurring issue with wireless connectivity disruptions in a break room. Users have reported that their laptops frequently lose connection to the Wi-Fi network when the microwave oven is in use. Upon investigation, the technician suspects that the issue is related to frequency interference. Based on this scenario,
Which wireless frequency band is most likely being affected and used by the laptops?
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 6 GHz
D. 900 MHz
Correct Answer: A. 2.4 GHz
Explanation:
This situation is an example of radio frequency interference (RFI), which occurs when two devices operate on the same or similar frequencies, causing disruption to each other's signals. In this case, the microwave oven, commonly found in break rooms, emits electromagnetic waves that typically operate around the 2.4 GHz frequency. This frequency is also used by many Wi-Fi devices, including older routers and wireless network adapters.
The 2.4 GHz band is a commonly used frequency for Wi-Fi as it offers a good balance between range and speed. However, this band is highly prone to interference because it is shared by many household devices like cordless phones, baby monitors, Bluetooth devices, and, notably, microwave ovens. When a microwave oven operates, it can emit electromagnetic radiation in the 2.4 GHz range, which interferes with nearby Wi-Fi signals, especially when the microwave is in use.
On the other hand, the 5 GHz and 6 GHz bands are newer and less congested, offering faster speeds and lower susceptibility to interference from appliances like microwaves. The 900 MHz band is typically used for long-range IoT communication and is not generally associated with standard Wi-Fi networks.
Thus, if the user's laptop consistently loses connection when the microwave is on, it is most likely using the 2.4 GHz band. Switching to the 5 GHz band could help resolve the issue by avoiding interference from the microwave.
Question No 8:
A network administrator is working within a virtualized environment and needs to enable routing functionalities directly within the hypervisor. Which of the following technologies is best suited to accomplish this?
A. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
B. Firewall
C. Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)
D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Correct Answer: C. Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)
Explanation:
When working in a virtualized environment, the goal is often to provide network services like routing, switching, and firewalls as software-based solutions that can be run within the virtualized infrastructure, avoiding the need for dedicated physical hardware.
Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) is the ideal technology for this scenario. NFV abstracts network functions, such as routing, switching, and firewalls, from dedicated hardware, allowing these services to run as virtualized appliances on virtual machines (VMs) within a hypervisor. This approach helps optimize resources, increases scalability, and provides flexibility in managing network resources. NFV is commonly used in cloud and data center environments to provide essential network services without relying on physical devices.
Let’s look at why the other options are less suitable:
A. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC): VPC is a cloud networking service that allows you to create an isolated network within a cloud environment, but it doesn't directly provide routing functionality within a hypervisor.
B. Firewall: While a firewall is important for network security, it is not a technology specifically aimed at enabling routing within a hypervisor.
D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): IaaS provides virtualized computing resources but doesn’t focus on delivering networking services such as routing directly within the hypervisor.
Therefore, NFV is the best technology for enabling routing and other network services within a hypervisor.
Question No 9:
A network technician has been assigned to connect a group of newly occupied office spaces to the corporate network. The technician needs to install patch cords between an unmarked UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) patch panel and an access switch. However, the patch panel lacks labels, making it difficult to determine which jack corresponds to each office’s network outlet. To efficiently and accurately identify the correct ports on the patch panel that correspond to the wall jacks in the new offices,
Which tool would be the most effective for the technician to use?
A. Toner and probe kit
B. Laptop
C. Cable tester
D. Visual fault locator
Correct Answer: A. Toner and probe kit
Explanation:
In this situation, the most effective tool for identifying the correct ports on an unmarked patch panel is a toner and probe kit. This diagnostic tool is specifically designed to help technicians trace cables and identify connections in scenarios where labeling is absent or unclear.
The toner and probe kit consists of two components:
Tone generator: This is attached to one end of the cable (usually at the wall jack in the office).
Probe: This device is used to trace the signal emitted by the tone generator along the cable to its other end (at the patch panel).
When the tone generator is connected to a wall jack, the technician can use the probe to scan the cables at the patch panel. The probe emits an audible sound when it detects the tone, helping the technician to identify the correct cable quickly and accurately.
Let’s look at why the other options are not as suitable:
B. Laptop: A laptop cannot effectively trace cables or identify the correct ports on a patch panel.
C. Cable tester: While a cable tester can check for continuity and proper wiring, it does not trace or identify cable paths, which is necessary in this situation.
D. Visual fault locator: This tool is used for identifying issues with optical fiber cables, not for UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cables.
Thus, the toner and probe kit is the best choice for this task, enabling the technician to efficiently identify and label the correct connections.
Question No 10:
Which of the following protocols is used for securing communications between a client and a server during the establishment of a VPN connection?
A) HTTP
B) IPSec
C) DNS
D) FTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
To properly secure communication between a client and a server during the establishment of a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection, it’s essential to understand the role of each protocol in securing data and ensuring privacy.
A) HTTP
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for transferring hypertext requests and information on the internet. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption. While HTTP is used for web traffic, it is not used for securing VPN connections, as it lacks encryption and authentication mechanisms required for a VPN’s secure communication.
B) IPSec
IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a protocol suite specifically designed for securing internet protocol (IP) communications. It does this by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet during the communication between devices. IPSec is commonly used in VPNs to secure the traffic between the client and the server, making it the best choice for securing VPN connections. It provides both encryption (to ensure data confidentiality) and authentication (to verify the identity of the communicating parties), which are critical for the security of a VPN.
C) DNS
DNS (Domain Name System) is a protocol used for translating domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses. While DNS is critical for the functioning of the internet, it does not provide any form of encryption or secure communications. DNS can be vulnerable to attacks like DNS spoofing, so securing DNS queries is important, but it is not used for securing VPN connections.
D) FTP
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and a server. Like HTTP, FTP lacks encryption, which makes it an insecure protocol for transferring sensitive data. While FTP is used for file transfers, it is not used for securing VPN connections, as it does not offer encryption or the necessary protections for securing traffic in a VPN environment.
The correct answer is B) IPSec because it is designed specifically to secure communications over a network, including the establishment of a VPN connection. It ensures confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of the data being transmitted between a client and a server during the setup of a VPN, which is why it is crucial for securing VPN connections.
