CompTIA N10-008 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
When considering Ethernet Local Area Networks (LANs), which physical topology is most commonly implemented?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Star
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Star topology is the most commonly implemented physical topology in Ethernet Local Area Networks (LANs). This topology has become the standard due to its simplicity, scalability, and ease of troubleshooting.
Why D. Star?
Star topology involves connecting all devices (computers, printers, switches, etc.) to a central device, usually a switch or hub. Each device communicates with the central hub, which then routes traffic to the intended destination.
This topology is highly popular in Ethernet LANs because it is easy to manage and expand. Adding or removing devices does not impact the rest of the network, and failures are easier to diagnose. If one device fails, it doesn't affect the others.
Ethernet networks, including Ethernet over twisted pair cables, are designed with Star topology in mind, where the switch or hub acts as the central point for communication.
Scalability: As Ethernet LANs grow, Star topology allows for relatively easy expansion by adding more devices to the central hub or switch.
Why not the other options?
A. Bus: While the bus topology was historically used in early Ethernet networks (especially with coaxial cables), it has largely been phased out. It involves a single shared communication medium where devices are connected to a single backbone. Bus topology is not ideal for modern Ethernet LANs because it’s prone to collisions, and troubleshooting can be difficult as all devices share the same line.
B. Ring: Ring topology was used in some older network technologies, such as Token Ring networks, but it's not commonly used in modern Ethernet LANs. In a ring topology, each device is connected to two other devices, forming a continuous loop. Data travels in one direction around the ring, which makes it difficult to recover from a failure in the ring.
C. Mesh: Mesh topology involves every device being connected to every other device, creating a highly redundant and fault-tolerant network. While it offers excellent fault tolerance and reliability, it is complex and expensive to implement on a large scale due to the large number of required connections. Mesh is more commonly used in WANs or critical connections, not in typical Ethernet LANs.
The Star topology (Option D) is the most commonly implemented physical topology in Ethernet LANs due to its simplicity, ease of expansion, and management advantages. It is by far the most practical and scalable choice for modern Ethernet networking.
Question 2:
An IT Director is tasked with creating a disaster recovery and high availability (HA) strategy to ensure minimal system downtime. The director configures two geographically separated data centers that are fully synchronized in real-time and can instantly take over operations in case of failure. This setup ensures that, if one site fails, the other seamlessly takes over with no delay or manual intervention.
A. A warm site
B. Data mirroring
C. Multipathing
D. Load balancing
E. A hot site
Answer: E
Explanation:
The scenario described is best characterized as a hot site. Let's break down the reasoning:
Why E. A hot site?
A hot site is a fully operational data center that is kept up-to-date and ready to take over operations with no delay in the event of a failure. It is continuously synchronized with the primary site, often in real-time, ensuring that there is minimal downtime and no manual intervention required to switch over. This matches the description of two geographically separated data centers that can instantly take over in case of failure.
Key feature: The hot site is always on, and it's continuously updated with the latest data, which ensures that the transition to the backup site is seamless and immediate.
Why not the other options?
A. A warm site: A warm site is a secondary location that may have some necessary infrastructure and resources in place, but it is not as fully operational or synchronized as a hot site. While it is a good disaster recovery solution, it typically requires some setup or synchronization before it can be used, leading to some downtime during failover.
B. Data mirroring: Data mirroring refers to the process of creating an exact copy of data on a separate storage device or location. While data mirroring is part of the high availability and disaster recovery strategy, it doesn't cover the entire setup, such as the immediate failover of operations or the ability to take over business functions seamlessly. Data mirroring is more about ensuring data consistency across locations, but it doesn't necessarily imply the operational readiness of a hot site.
C. Multipathing: Multipathing is a technique used in storage environments where multiple paths (connections) to the same storage device are created to improve redundancy and ensure availability in case one path fails. This is relevant to storage systems but doesn't describe the entire disaster recovery strategy outlined in the question.
D. Load balancing: Load balancing is a method of distributing incoming network traffic across multiple servers or resources to optimize performance and availability. While load balancing can help with high availability, it is not specifically a disaster recovery strategy and does not necessarily ensure immediate failover from one data center to another.
The best choice for this scenario is E. A hot site, as it describes a setup where two data centers are fully synchronized and can seamlessly take over operations with no delay or manual intervention in case of failure, which matches the described requirements for disaster recovery and high availability.
Question 3:
To secure the stability and integrity of the corporate network, the leadership team is implementing stricter policies over infrastructure changes. They aim to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary changes, ensuring that modifications are well-documented, reviewed, and properly controlled.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Business Continuity Plan
C. Change Management Policy
D. Acceptable Use Policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the leadership team is focused on controlling and documenting infrastructure changes, which is a core aspect of managing modifications within an organization's systems and processes. Let’s break down each option and see why Change Management Policy is the most effective.
Why C. Change Management Policy?
Change Management Policy is specifically designed to establish a structured process for managing and controlling changes to IT infrastructure. It ensures that any changes—whether to hardware, software, or configurations—are planned, reviewed, authorized, and documented before implementation. This policy directly addresses the concern of preventing unauthorized or unnecessary changes, and it helps maintain the stability and integrity of the network.
Key components of a Change Management Policy typically include:
Change request documentation to detail the nature and reason for changes.
Approval workflows to ensure changes are authorized by the right stakeholders.
Impact assessments to evaluate how changes will affect the overall infrastructure.
Change tracking to maintain an audit trail of modifications.
Post-change reviews to ensure changes are successful and don’t introduce new issues.
Why not the other options?
A. Incident Response Plan: An Incident Response Plan outlines the steps an organization should take in response to cybersecurity incidents or breaches, such as data theft, malware outbreaks, or network intrusions. While it’s vital for responding to security incidents, it doesn’t focus on managing infrastructure changes or ensuring proper control and documentation of changes to systems.
B. Business Continuity Plan: A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) ensures that an organization can continue its critical operations in the event of disasters, such as fires, power outages, or natural calamities. While it may include aspects of IT systems and infrastructure, it doesn’t specifically address how to manage and control day-to-day infrastructure changes.
D. Acceptable Use Policy: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines acceptable behavior for users accessing corporate IT resources. It usually covers things like internet usage, email, and software installation. While important for user behavior and IT security, it does not address the formal management of infrastructure changes.
The Change Management Policy is the most suitable document for ensuring that infrastructure changes are well-controlled, authorized, and documented. It provides a structured approach to managing changes, which is essential for maintaining the stability and integrity of the network. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Change Management Policy.
Question 4:
In a modern enterprise data center, traffic is often classified as either North-South (traffic between internal systems and external sources) or East-West (traffic between systems within the same data center). Understanding data flow patterns is essential for optimizing the network, monitoring security, and allocating resources.
Which scenario is most likely to generate significant East-West traffic within a data center?
A. Uploading a large video to cloud storage for long-term backup
B. Cloning a virtual machine (VM) from one physical server to another within the same data center for high availability
C. Downloading map data from a server to a smartphone for offline use
D. Sending a firmware update request from an IoT device to a cloud server
Answer: B
Explanation:
To understand the flow of network traffic, it's important to differentiate between East-West and North-South traffic:
East-West traffic refers to data moving between systems within the same data center. This type of traffic generally occurs when servers, storage systems, or virtual machines communicate with each other.
North-South traffic refers to data moving in and out of the data center, such as data flowing between the data center and external resources, like clients, remote offices, or cloud services.
Why B. Cloning a virtual machine (VM) from one physical server to another within the same data center for high availability is the correct answer:
When you clone a virtual machine within the same data center, the data transfer occurs between systems within the same data center. This results in East-West traffic because the traffic is confined to the internal infrastructure of the data center.
In this case, the data being transferred is likely large, as it involves duplicating the entire VM, including its operating system, applications, and data, from one physical server to another. This type of internal data movement is typical in scenarios where high availability, load balancing, or disaster recovery configurations are being implemented.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Uploading a large video to cloud storage for long-term backup: This scenario represents North-South traffic, where data is being sent from an internal system to an external destination (cloud storage). The traffic is leaving the data center, so it’s classified as North-South, not East-West.
C. Downloading map data from a server to a smartphone for offline use: This also represents North-South traffic, as the data is being transmitted from a server (likely within the data center) to an external device (the smartphone), which is outside of the data center.
D. Sending a firmware update request from an IoT device to a cloud server: This scenario involves communication from an external device (IoT device) to an external server (cloud server), which is North-South traffic. The data is leaving the data center, and there is no internal movement between systems within the data center.
The correct answer is B. Cloning a virtual machine (VM) from one physical server to another within the same data center for high availability because it generates East-West traffic, which is traffic moving between systems within the same data center.
Question 5:
A network technician is troubleshooting intermittent connectivity issues on a managed network switch. The issue arises when the switch’s system logging level is set to "debugging" to capture detailed diagnostic data. During this time, users report slow responses and dropped connections. The technician suspects the increased logging load might be affecting the system’s performance.
Which performance metric should the technician investigate first to determine the cause of the intermittent failures?
A. Audit logs
B. CPU utilization
C. CRC errors
D. Jitter
Answer: B
Explanation:
When troubleshooting network issues, especially when a system’s behavior changes based on its logging configuration, it's essential to focus on the metrics that most directly correlate with system performance under load.
Why B. CPU utilization is the correct answer:
CPU utilization is the most likely metric to be impacted by the "debugging" logging level, which generates a significant amount of data for the switch to process.
When the system logging level is set to "debugging," the switch is likely logging a high volume of data, and if the system's CPU is unable to handle the additional processing load, it can lead to slower system performance, including intermittent connectivity issues and dropped connections.
High CPU utilization may cause the switch to become unresponsive or to delay the processing of network traffic, which is likely the cause of the slow responses and connectivity problems reported by users.
Why the other options are less likely:
A. Audit logs: While audit logs may provide valuable information for security or compliance purposes, they are unlikely to directly impact the performance of the network switch unless the logs are so extensive that they fill up available storage. In this case, the technician is more focused on performance metrics related to system load and processing.
C. CRC errors: Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) errors typically indicate issues with the integrity of data transmission, such as cable problems, interference, or faulty hardware. While these errors could lead to connectivity issues, they are less likely to be caused by the "debugging" logging level and would usually point to a physical layer isue or transmission problem rather than a load-related performance issue.
D. Jitter: Jitter refers to the variation in packet arrival times and is often associated with latency in real-time applications, such as VoIP or video streaming. Although jitter could be a result of performance degradation, it is more of a symptom of network congestion or high traffic load. Jitter would not be the primary focus if the issue is believed to be related to the logging load on the switch.
The most likely cause of intermittent connectivity issues due to an increased logging load is that the switch's CPU utilization has spiked as it tries to handle the detailed "debugging" logs. This increased CPU load can degrade the switch's performance, leading to the reported issues. Therefore, the technician should investigate CPU utilization first.
Question 6:
A network technician is deploying a new wireless network for a three-story office building. The design includes 30 access points (APs) positioned to ensure complete coverage, with each AP broadcasting the same SSID, allowing users to roam seamlessly between APs. These APs are interconnected and managed centrally for unified network experience.
Which wireless network configuration best describes this deployment?
A. Extended Service Set (ESS)
B. Basic Service Set (BSS)
C. Unified Service Set (USS)
D. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question aligns most closely with the Extended Service Set (ESS) configuration in wireless networking. Here's why:
Why A. Extended Service Set (ESS) is the correct answer:
An ESS is a wireless network configuration that involves multiple Basic Service Sets (BSS) connected together through a common distribution system (such as a wired network) to allow seamless communication across the entire network.
Each AP in the network broadcasts the same SSID (Service Set Identifier), and because these APs are interconnected and centrally managed, they provide seamless roaming for users as they move between the APs, without dropping the connection.
The use of 30 APs spread across a three-story building and the central management of those APs fits perfectly within an ESS model, which is commonly used for large environments like office buildings to provide extensive wireless coverage.
Why the other options are less suitable:
B. Basic Service Set (BSS): A BSS refers to a single access point (AP) and the clients connected to it. In the scenario described, there are multiple APs providing coverage for the entire building, so the network configuration is more complex than a single BSS.
C. Unified Service Set (USS): USS is not a standard term in wireless networking and is not typically used to describe wireless network configurations.
D. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS): An IBSS, also known as an ad hoc network, involves a group of devices communicating directly with each other without the need for an access point. In this case, the network described is managed with access points, so IBSS does not apply.
The Extended Service Set (ESS) configuration is the best fit for the described deployment, where multiple access points are used to ensure full coverage, and the SSID is broadcasted across all APs to allow seamless roaming and a unified network experience.
Question 7:
A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues between two devices on different IP subnets. A user on the 192.168.2.0/24 network tries to ping a host with the IP address 192.168.1.100, but the response pattern is U.U.U.U., indicating that the ICMP packets are not reaching the target network.
Which configuration must be checked and properly set to allow communication between the devices on these two subnets?
A. Network Address Translation
B. Default Gateway
C. Loopback
D. Routing Protocol
Answer: B
Explanation:
When two devices are on different subnets, they need to communicate through a router or layer 3 device. If communication fails and the response pattern is U.U.U.U., which typically indicates "Destination Unreachable" messages from the device trying to send the packets, it suggests that the source device is unaware of how to reach the target device. The key factor here is that the source device needs a configured default gateway to forward packets that are destined for IP addresses outside its local subnet.
Why B. Default Gateway is the correct answer:
A default gateway is used by devices on a network to forward packets that are destined for addresses outside the local subnet. In this scenario, the user on the 192.168.2.0/24 network is trying to ping an address (192.168.1.100) that resides in a different subnet. The packet needs to be forwarded by a router or gateway to reach the other subnet.
Without a properly set default gateway, the device will not know where to send packets destined for outside its own subnet, leading to the "U.U.U.U." response.
Why the other options are less suitable:
A. Network Address Translation (NAT): NAT is typically used to modify the IP address information in the headers of packets (usually for address translation between private and public networks). While NAT is important in specific network configurations (such as between a private network and the internet), it does not directly affect the ability of devices to communicate within different subnets on a local network, which is the issue here.
C. Loopback: The loopback interface is used for testing network connectivity on the local device itself (often associated with IP address 127.0.0.1). It is not relevant to the issue of communication between devices on different subnets.
D. Routing Protocol: While a routing protocol like OSPF or RIP is important for dynamic routing between different subnets or networks, the issue here is with the local device's default gateway, which needs to be configured correctly to route traffic to the other subnet. A routing protocol may be involved on the router, but the immediate issue appears to be with the device's gateway setting.
The most likely reason why the device cannot reach the other subnet is that the default gateway is either missing or incorrectly configured. The default gateway tells the device how to route packets to networks outside its local subnet, and in this case, that configuration needs to be checked and properly set.
Question 8:
A branch office recently changed its ISP and was given a new IP address block: 196.26.4.0/26. The network engineer assigned an IP address within this block to the gateway router. After the configuration was applied, all users in the branch office lost Internet access, though internal network access remained intact.
What is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. The incorrect subnet mask was configured
B. The incorrect gateway was configured
C. The incorrect IP address was configured
D. The incorrect interface was configured
Answer: A. The incorrect subnet mask was configured
Explanation:
When the users in the branch office lost Internet access, but internal network access remained intact, this suggests that the router's configuration, specifically the network address and subnet mask, may be the problem. The issue likely stems from how the router is handling the communication between the internal network and the external (Internet) network.
Here’s why A. The incorrect subnet mask was configured is the most likely cause:
Subnet Mask Issues: The /26 subnet mask indicates that there are 64 IP addresses available within the block (196.26.4.0 to 196.26.4.63). If the subnet mask is incorrectly configured (for example, if it was set to something too broad like /24, which covers a larger range of IPs), it could prevent the router from properly distinguishing between local and external addresses. This misconfiguration could lead to issues in routing packets to the correct destination, causing users to lose internet access while still being able to access devices within the same subnet.
Why the other options are less likely:
B. The incorrect gateway was configured: If the gateway IP address itself was incorrect, users would not be able to reach any external network, including both the Internet and other subnets. However, the problem here is described as only affecting Internet access, meaning the issue is more likely related to how the gateway is configured to handle traffic between the internal network and the Internet.
C. The incorrect IP address was configured: If the IP address of the router itself was configured incorrectly (e.g., outside the given range), users would not be able to communicate even within the local network. Since internal network access remains intact, it's unlikely that the IP address configuration is the issue.
D. The incorrect interface was configured: If the interface on the router was incorrectly assigned or misconfigured, it could result in loss of connectivity, but since internal access is still working, it’s more likely that the issue is related to the IP addressing and subnetting (which affects how the router forwards traffic between networks).
The most likely cause of the issue is an incorrect subnet mask configuration. This misconfiguration would prevent the router from correctly routing traffic between the internal network and the external Internet network, while still allowing internal communication.
Question 9:
Zero Trust security models have become increasingly popular in addressing complex cyber threats.
What is one of the core security benefits of implementing a Zero Trust framework?
A. It prevents lateral movement by continuously verifying user and device trust levels before granting access to resources.
B. It allows servers to communicate externally without the need for firewalls.
C. It automatically blocks new, unidentified malware before it can cause damage.
D. It restricts users from downloading potentially harmful files from websites.
Answer: A. It prevents lateral movement by continuously verifying user and device trust levels before granting access to resources.
Explanation:
The Zero Trust security model operates on the principle of "never trust, always verify," meaning that no user or device, whether inside or outside the network, is trusted by default. Each access request is verified, authenticated, and authorized on its own merits, and this is done continuously for both users and devices throughout their session. This approach helps to prevent lateral movement, where an attacker gains access to one resource and then moves across the network to access other systems, thereby reducing the impact of any potential breach.
Why the other options are less likely:
B. It allows servers to communicate externally without the need for firewalls: This is not a core concept of Zero Trust. In fact, Zero Trust typically involves a strong reliance on firewalls and micro-segmentation to enforce strict access control and monitoring, even for internal communications.
C. It automatically blocks new, unidentified malware before it can cause damage: While Zero Trust does focus on restricting access to resources and monitoring behavior, preventing malware is generally not a direct benefit of the model itself. Blocking new malware typically involves endpoint protection, behavioral analysis, and antivirus solutions.
D. It restricts users from downloading potentially harmful files from websites: While Zero Trust does enforce strong access controls, restricting specific actions like downloading files from websites is more likely handled by additional layers of security such as web filtering and endpoint security, rather than Zero Trust itself.
The primary benefit of Zero Trust is its ability to prevent lateral movement across the network by continuously verifying user and device trust levels before granting access to resources, making A the most accurate and appropriate answer.
Question 10:
A network security engineer is configuring a new firewall to protect the company’s internal network. The firewall is designed to filter incoming traffic based on predefined rules but should also allow remote employees to access the internal network securely through a VPN.
Which firewall rule configuration would best address these requirements?
A. Block all incoming traffic by default, then allow VPN traffic on a specific port.
B. Allow all incoming traffic by default, then block access to specific ports.
C. Allow incoming traffic from known IP addresses only and deny all others.
D. Block all traffic except for incoming VPN connections and essential services.
Answer: A. Block all incoming traffic by default, then allow VPN traffic on a specific port.
Explanation:
The best approach for securing the network is to block all incoming traffic by default (a principle known as default-deny) and only allow traffic explicitly that is needed for certain services, such as the VPN. This ensures that only the traffic required for remote access (through the VPN) is permitted while all other potentially harmful traffic is blocked.
This approach is commonly used to minimize the attack surface and ensure that the firewall only allows specific, pre-approved types of connections (in this case, VPN traffic on a specific port). Remote employees can securely access the network through the VPN, while the rest of the inbound traffic is denied unless it explicitly matches the firewall's allowed rules.
Why the other options are less suitable:
B. Allow all incoming traffic by default, then block access to specific ports: This configuration is insecure because it allows all traffic by default, creating a large potential attack surface. Blocking only specific ports afterward would be ineffective as it leaves too many open channels for potential exploits.
C. Allow incoming traffic from known IP addresses only and deny all others: While restricting traffic to known IP addresses can be useful, it's not a comprehensive solution for securing remote access. This would require maintaining a list of IP addresses for remote employees, which could be complex to manage, especially for dynamic IPs used by employees on various networks.
D. Block all traffic except for incoming VPN connections and essential services: While this is a more secure approach, it's a bit broader than necessary. "Essential services" could inadvertently open the network to unwanted traffic. A. is a more specific and controlled approach by allowing only the VPN traffic and blocking everything else.
Option A is the most effective configuration for the firewall, as it follows the default-deny security principle, ensuring that only the required VPN traffic is allowed and all other incoming traffic is blocked.
