Juniper JN0-649 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
You have been tasked with implementing a fault-tolerant Rendezvous Point (RP) mechanism in your multicast network to ensure continuous and reliable multicast traffic delivery in the event of a failure.
Which two of the following solutions would be effective in achieving fault tolerance for RPs in this multicast network? (Select two.)
A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) with statically defined RPs.
B. Use Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) with statically defined RPs.
C. Use anycast PIM with statically defined RPs.
D. Use Internet Group Management Protocol version 3 (IGMPv3) with statically defined RPs.
Answer:
C. Use anycast PIM with statically defined RPs.
B. Use MSDP with statically defined RPs.
Explanation:
Anycast PIM with statically defined RPs (Option C): Anycast RP provides a robust solution for fault tolerance. Multiple routers can be configured as RPs but share the same IP address. When a source sends multicast traffic, it is directed to the nearest RP. If one RP fails, another takes over, ensuring continuous traffic delivery without interruption. This technique provides redundancy and seamless failover, essential for fault-tolerant multicast operations.
MSDP with statically defined RPs (Option B): MSDP (Multicast Source Discovery Protocol) is typically used for inter-domain multicast routing. Although it doesn’t directly offer RP redundancy, combining it with statically defined RPs allows for the propagation of source information across the network. This helps routers detect alternate RPs if the primary RP fails, thus ensuring fault tolerance.
Why the other options are incorrect:
BFD with statically defined RPs (Option A): Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) is useful for quickly detecting failures in network links but does not provide redundancy or fault tolerance for RPs themselves. It can detect failures but lacks the capability to provide a replacement RP in case of failure.
IGMPv3 with statically defined RPs (Option D): IGMPv3 is designed for managing multicast group memberships on the host side. It is crucial for multicast receiver management but does not address RP redundancy or fault tolerance. RP failover requires solutions like Anycast PIM or MSDP.
Conclusion: The most effective solutions for fault tolerance in RP mechanisms are Anycast PIM and MSDP, as they ensure multicast traffic reliability even if an RP fails.
Question No 2:
What are the three key MSTP parameters that must be consistent across all switches within the same MST (Multiple Spanning Tree) region? (Choose three.)
A. Forwarding delay
B. Bridge priority
C. Revision number
D. MSTI-to-VLAN mapping
E. Configuration name
Answer:
C. Revision number
D. MSTI-to-VLAN mapping
E. Configuration name
Explanation:
In MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol), a region consists of switches that share the same configuration. Certain parameters must be consistent across all switches in the same MST region to ensure proper operation of the spanning tree. These parameters are:
Revision Number (C): The revision number is used to track changes in the MSTP configuration. All switches in the same MST region must have the same revision number to ensure they can synchronize their spanning tree topology and share configuration information properly. Different revision numbers will cause miscommunication and prevent switches from correctly forming the same MST region.
MSTI-to-VLAN Mapping (D): This mapping defines how VLANs are assigned to different MST Instances (MSTIs). For consistent operation, all switches in the same MST region must have the identical MSTI-to-VLAN mapping. Any mismatch in this mapping can lead to incorrect traffic forwarding, network loops, or inefficiencies.
Configuration Name (E): The configuration name identifies the MST region. It ensures that switches within the same region can recognize each other and operate as part of the same MST region. A mismatch in the configuration name between switches will prevent them from participating in the same MST region.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Forwarding delay (A): This parameter, which defines the time delay for forwarding decisions, is relevant to the operation of individual spanning tree instances but does not need to be the same across all switches within an MST region.
Bridge Priority (B): Bridge priority affects the root bridge election in the spanning tree but does not need to be identical across all switches in the same MST region. It is used on a per-instance basis and can vary depending on how each switch is configured to participate in the election process.
Conclusion: To ensure the proper operation of MSTP, the three parameters that must be consistent across all switches within the same MST region are Revision number, MSTI-to-VLAN mapping, and Configuration name.
Question No 3:
When wide metrics are enabled in IS-IS, which of the following statements regarding the advertisement of routes between IS-IS levels are accurate? (Select two.)
A. By default, Level 1 routers do not advertise Level 2 routes into the Level 1 area.
B. By default, Level 1 routes are advertised to Level 2 routers.
C. When the "wide-metrics-only" configuration is applied, Level 1 routes are not advertised to Level 2 routers by default.
D. External Level 1 routes are not advertised to any Level 2 routers by default.
Correct Answer:
A. By default, Level 1 routers do not advertise Level 2 routes into the Level 1 area.
C. When the "wide-metrics-only" configuration is applied, Level 1 routes are not advertised to Level 2 routers by default.
Explanation:
IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is a link-state routing protocol that divides routers into Level 1 and Level 2. Level 1 routers handle intra-area routing, while Level 2 routers are responsible for inter-area communication. The wide-metrics configuration enables larger metric values, affecting how routing information is exchanged between Level 1 and Level 2 routers.
Statement A is accurate. By default, Level 1 routers do not advertise Level 2 routes into the Level 1 area. This isolation helps prevent unnecessary flooding of external routes within a Level 1 area.
Statement B is incorrect. By default, Level 1 routers do not advertise their internal routes to Level 2 routers.
Statement C is accurate. When the "wide-metrics-only" configuration is applied, Level 1 routes are not advertised to Level 2 routers unless the routes meet the wide-metrics criteria.
Statement D is incorrect. External Level 1 routes may still be advertised to Level 2 routers based on the configuration.
In summary, with wide metrics, the default behavior is that Level 1 routers do not advertise Level 2 routes into the Level 1 area, and when the "wide-metrics-only" configuration is used, Level 1 routes are not advertised to Level 2 routers.
Question No 4:
What are two similarities between OSPFv2 (Open Shortest Path First version 2) and OSPFv3 (Open Shortest Path First version 3)? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual links
B. Support for multiple instances per link
C. 32-bit router ID
D. Protocol processing per link, not per subnet
Correct Answer:
A. Virtual links
C. 32-bit router ID
Explanation:
OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 are two versions of the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol. OSPFv2 is used for IPv4, while OSPFv3 is used for IPv6. Despite differences in their handling of IPv6 addressing and other features, both versions share several core similarities:
Virtual Links (Option A): Both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 support virtual links. Virtual links allow routers in non-contiguous areas to communicate over the OSPF network by establishing a logical connection through the backbone area (Area 0). This feature helps in scenarios where areas are physically separated but need to remain logically connected.
32-bit Router ID (Option C): Both versions use a 32-bit Router ID to uniquely identify each router within the OSPF domain. This Router ID is essential for OSPF operation, helping distinguish routers in the routing table and ensuring correct routing.
The other options:
Support for multiple instances per link (Option B) is not a feature common to both versions.
Protocol processing per link, not per subnet (Option D) is a characteristic of OSPF, but not a distinguishing feature between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3.
In conclusion, virtual links and the 32-bit router ID are key similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3.
Question No 5:
Your EX Series switch has IP telephones and computers connected to a single switch port. You are considering implementing the voice VLAN feature to optimize the network setup.
In this context, which two of the following statements are true regarding the implementation of the voice VLAN feature? (Choose two.)
A. The voice VLAN feature must be used with LLDP-MED to associate VLAN ID and 802.1p values with the traffic.
B. The switch ports must be configured as access ports to work with voice VLANs.
C. By assigning separate VLANs for voice and data traffic, you can apply Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize traffic using Class of Service (CoS).
D. The voice VLAN feature will allow incoming tagged voice and data traffic to be associated with different VLANs on the same switch port.
Correct Answer:
A. The voice VLAN feature must be used with LLDP-MED to associate VLAN ID and 802.1p values with the traffic.
C. By assigning separate VLANs for voice and data traffic, you can apply Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize traffic using Class of Service (CoS).
Explanation:
In this scenario, the goal is to implement the voice VLAN feature on a switch where IP telephones and computers are connected to the same port. This feature helps to separate and prioritize voice and data traffic to optimize network performance.
A. LLDP-MED with voice VLAN: The Link Layer Discovery Protocol for Media Endpoint Devices (LLDP-MED) is a standard used to convey important network information, such as VLAN IDs and 802.1p priority values, between devices. When setting up a voice VLAN, LLDP-MED ensures that voice traffic is given higher priority over data traffic, which is essential for maintaining Quality of Service (QoS) and optimizing voice communication.
C. Separation of traffic for prioritization: By assigning separate VLANs for voice and data traffic, network devices can distinguish between the two types of traffic. This allows for the application of Class of Service (CoS), which ensures that voice traffic is prioritized over data traffic. This prioritization is crucial for maintaining high-quality voice calls without interruptions or delays.
Why the other options are not suitable:
B. Access ports configuration: The switch port should not be configured as an access port when working with voice VLANs. Instead, the port must be configured as a trunk port to carry both voice and data VLANs on the same physical link. Access ports are limited to carrying traffic for a single VLAN, which would not allow the separation of voice and data traffic required by the voice VLAN feature.
D. Tagged traffic: The voice VLAN feature allows separate VLANs for voice and data, but the traffic must be properly tagged with the respective VLAN IDs to ensure that both types of traffic are handled correctly. The switch uses these tags to differentiate the voice and data traffic, ensuring it is processed according to its VLAN assignment. Therefore, incoming traffic needs to be tagged appropriately, and the switch port should be set up to handle multiple VLANs.
Question No 6:
You are tasked with deploying new Juniper EX Series switches into a network that is currently running Cisco's Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+). To ensure compatibility with the existing network infrastructure,
Which spanning tree protocol should be configured on the Juniper switches?
A. STP
B. MSTP
C. VSTP
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: C. VSTP
Explanation:
In this scenario, the network is using Cisco's Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+), which is a proprietary spanning tree protocol that runs a separate instance of STP for each VLAN. To integrate Juniper EX Series switches into this network, VSTP (Virtual Spanning Tree Protocol) is the appropriate spanning tree protocol to configure on the Juniper switches. VSTP is designed to provide the same functionality as Cisco's PVST+, enabling VLAN-specific spanning tree instances on Juniper devices and ensuring compatibility with Cisco PVST+.
Why the other options are not suitable:
A. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol): This is the standard version of STP, but it doesn't support per-VLAN spanning tree instances like PVST+ or VSTP. STP is not capable of handling VLAN-specific spanning tree configurations, so it would not be compatible with a network running PVST+.
B. MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol): While MSTP allows multiple VLANs to be mapped to fewer spanning tree instances, it is not compatible with Cisco's PVST+. MSTP is typically used in mixed-vendor environments but would not directly support PVST+ functionality on a Cisco network.
D. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol): RSTP is an improvement over STP, offering faster convergence times. However, it is still a single-instance protocol and cannot handle per-VLAN spanning tree instances, which is required to maintain compatibility with PVST+.
Thus, to ensure compatibility between Juniper EX Series switches and a Cisco PVST+ network, you should configure VSTP on the Juniper switches.
Question No 7:
A modified deficit round-robin (MDRR) scheduler is commonly used in networking devices such as routers and switches to manage the distribution of bandwidth to different traffic flows. This type of scheduler is characterized by a set of parameters that help in determining the allocation of resources to various traffic classes.
Which three variables are typically associated with defining a modified deficit round-robin scheduler? Choose three from the list below.
A. Priority
B. WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection)
C. Transmit rate
D. Layer 3 fields
E. Buffer size
Answer:
A. Priority
C. Transmit rate
E. Buffer size
Explanation:
The Modified Deficit Round-Robin (MDRR) scheduler is an advanced version of the Deficit Round-Robin (DRR) scheduling algorithm, primarily used in routers and switches to distribute bandwidth across different traffic flows. MDRR enhances fairness and resource allocation by considering specific parameters that define the scheduling process.
Here are the three key variables associated with MDRR:
Priority (A):
In MDRR, traffic is often categorized based on priority levels. Higher-priority traffic (such as VoIP or real-time video streaming) can be given more bandwidth compared to lower-priority traffic (like bulk data transfers). This prioritization ensures that time-sensitive applications receive the necessary resources, even during periods of congestion.Transmit rate (C):
The transmit rate is the amount of bandwidth allocated for transmission. MDRR uses the transmit rate to allocate bandwidth to each traffic class or flow during each scheduling round. By adjusting the transmit rate, the scheduler can distribute resources in a way that meets the throughput requirements of each traffic type, ensuring fairness and optimizing network utilization.Buffer size (E):
The buffer size is crucial in the MDRR scheduling algorithm. It refers to the amount of temporary storage available for holding packets before transmission. MDRR must manage this buffer efficiently to avoid congestion and ensure that packets are transmitted smoothly. If the buffer is too small, packet loss could occur, whereas a larger buffer might lead to unnecessary delay and congestion. The scheduler must carefully manage the buffer size to balance data flow and minimize packet drops.
Incorrect Options:
WRED (B): While WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection) is important for congestion control and avoidance, it is not directly associated with the MDRR scheduler. WRED operates separately as a mechanism to drop packets proactively before the network reaches full capacity, while MDRR focuses on bandwidth allocation.
Layer 3 fields (D): Layer 3 fields, which relate to the network layer (IP packets), are involved in packet processing and routing but are not part of the MDRR scheduler’s core configuration. The MDRR scheduler is concerned with allocating bandwidth to traffic flows, not directly with the structure of IP packets.
The MDRR scheduler utilizes priority, transmit rate, and buffer size as its core variables for managing bandwidth allocation across different traffic classes. These parameters help ensure that network resources are used efficiently while maintaining the necessary service levels for various types of traffic.
Question No 8:
A business analyst (BA) is working with a project team that is developing a new software application for the sales department. The BA has gathered several requirements and is now working to ensure they align with the broader organizational goals.
Which of the following tasks should the BA perform to ensure that the gathered requirements meet the strategic goals of the organization?
A) Review the project budget to ensure the gathered requirements are within financial constraints.
B) Review the organization's vision and strategy to ensure that the gathered requirements support the long-term goals of the business.
C) Review the technical feasibility of the gathered requirements to ensure they can be implemented by the development team.
D) Review the requirements with stakeholders and ensure they are accurately documented and aligned with their expectations.
Correct Answer:
B) Review the organization's vision and strategy to ensure that the gathered requirements support the long-term goals of the business.
Explanation:
The IIBA ECBA exam evaluates the fundamental knowledge and understanding of business analysis practices. In this question, the focus is on aligning requirements with organizational goals, which is a critical task for any business analyst (BA).
Why is Option B the correct answer?
Option B: Review the organization's vision and strategy to ensure that the gathered requirements support the long-term goals of the business.
A fundamental aspect of business analysis is ensuring that the requirements align with the strategic objectives of the organization. The BA must ensure that the project or initiative they are working on contributes to the company’s long-term vision and strategic goals. By reviewing the organization’s vision and strategy, the BA can ensure that the solution being developed is not only feasible but also aligns with the business's overarching objectives, ensuring its relevance and value.
The BA will work closely with stakeholders to translate business needs into clear and actionable requirements. Once the requirements are gathered, the BA should compare them with the organization’s strategic goals to make sure that the solution being designed can contribute to the company’s success in the long run.
Let’s now discuss why the other options are less effective:
Option A: Review the project budget to ensure the gathered requirements are within financial constraints.
While budget constraints are essential to consider, this step is more about ensuring the project stays within financial limits rather than aligning the requirements with the organization’s long-term strategic goals. The focus here should be on ensuring that the project contributes value, not just cost efficiency.
Option C: Review the technical feasibility of the gathered requirements to ensure they can be implemented by the development team.
Technical feasibility is important but it focuses primarily on the development process. This doesn’t ensure that the requirements align with the organization’s broader goals, which is the key point in the question.
Option D: Review the requirements with stakeholders and ensure they are accurately documented and aligned with their expectations.
While it is important to align requirements with stakeholder needs, this doesn’t guarantee alignment with strategic goals. Stakeholder needs are one part of the puzzle, but the project must also align with the organization’s overall objectives.
Question No 9:
You are configuring a router for a network design that involves OSPF (Open Shortest Path First). The router is required to advertise routes to other routers in the network, but certain routes must not be advertised due to business policies.
Which OSPF feature would you use to prevent specific routes from being advertised while still allowing others?
A) Route Maps
B) OSPF Filtering
C) OSPF Stub Areas
D) Route Summarization
Correct Answer: B) OSPF Filtering
Explanation:
The Juniper JN0-649 exam is designed to test knowledge and skills in configuring and managing Juniper Networks devices. This question focuses on OSPF configuration, a widely used link-state routing protocol in IP networks. Understanding how to control the advertisement of routes is crucial for maintaining network security and policy compliance.
Why is Option B the correct answer?
Option B: OSPF Filtering
In OSPF, route advertisement is controlled using route filtering. The feature allows you to filter specific routes from being advertised to neighboring routers, ensuring that only the desired routes are shared across the network. This can be used to comply with business policies that restrict the advertisement of certain routes.
OSPF filtering can be configured at different points in the network, such as on OSPF neighbors or within the OSPF network types. By using OSPF filtering, you can prevent the advertisement of sensitive or unnecessary routes, ensuring better control over the network's routing behavior.
Let’s discuss why the other options are less effective:
Option A: Route Maps
Route Maps are commonly used in BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) configurations for filtering routes. While route maps can be useful for controlling routing policies, they are not typically applied in OSPF for the specific purpose of advertisement filtering. Route maps are not a standard way to control OSPF route advertisement.
Option C: OSPF Stub Areas
An OSPF Stub Area is a type of area where external routes (e.g., routes learned via BGP) are not allowed. While stub areas can reduce routing overhead, they don’t specifically filter routes within an OSPF domain. They’re more about restricting the types of external routes received, not the advertisement of specific internal routes.
Option D: Route Summarization
Route summarization combines multiple network routes into a single summarized route. While summarization can help reduce the size of routing tables and simplify routing, it doesn’t allow you to selectively filter individual routes from being advertised. This is a different goal from the one described in the question.
Question No 10:
A business analyst (BA) is working with stakeholders to define the scope of a new project. The stakeholders have different views on what should be included in the project, and there is a lack of consensus on priorities.
Which technique should the BA use to facilitate a productive discussion and achieve alignment among stakeholders?
A) Use the MoSCoW method to categorize requirements based on priority.
B) Use SWOT analysis to assess strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
C) Use mind mapping to visualize the requirements and their relationships.
D) Use brainstorming to generate ideas and then categorize them into themes.
Correct Answer:
A) Use the MoSCoW method to categorize requirements based on priority.
Explanation:
The IIBA ECBA exam tests your foundational knowledge in business analysis. This question addresses the challenge of aligning stakeholders with competing priorities and expectations.
Why is Option A the correct answer?
Option A: Use the MoSCoW method to categorize requirements based on priority.
The MoSCoW method is a prioritization technique widely used in business analysis. It categorizes requirements into the following four categories:
Must have: Essential for the success of the project.
Should have: Important but not critical.
Could have: Desirable but not essential.
Won't have: Not a priority for the current project.
By using the MoSCoW method, the business analyst can help stakeholders reach a consensus on which requirements are critical to the success of the project. This structured approach enables productive discussion and ensures that everyone understands the importance of different requirements, helping the team prioritize effectively.
Let’s discuss why the other options are less effective:
Option B: Use SWOT analysis to assess strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
While SWOT analysis is valuable for assessing strategic options, it is less effective in prioritizing specific project requirements. It focuses more on a broad assessment of the internal and external environment, which does not directly help in aligning stakeholder priorities.
Option C: Use mind mapping to visualize the requirements and their relationships.
Mind mapping is useful for organizing information visually but does not necessarily help with prioritization. While it can help stakeholders see the relationships between different requirements, it doesn’t guide them in aligning on what is most important for the project.
Option D: Use brainstorming to generate ideas and then categorize them into themes.
Brainstorming is an excellent way to generate ideas, but it may not be as effective in prioritizing requirements or aligning stakeholders. After brainstorming, it is essential to apply a structured method like MoSCoW to prioritize the ideas effectively.
These questions help to develop critical thinking about business analysis processes for the IIBA ECBA exam, and also test networking knowledge for the Juniper JN0-649 exam. Let me know if you need further questions or explanations!
