HP HPE6-A72 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1:
What is the name of the process that a computing system uses to convert binary data into suitable physical signals, depending on the communication medium being used?
A. Demodulation
B. Modulation
C. Signal propagation
D. Data encapsulation
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The process of converting binary data (such as 0s and 1s) into physical signals—whether electrical, optical, or electromagnetic—is known as modulation. This is a fundamental step in data transmission, especially in communication systems where digital data needs to be sent over analog channels or media such as copper wires, fiber optics, or radio waves.
Option A: Demodulation – This is the inverse process of modulation. Demodulation involves extracting the original binary data from a modulated signal. It occurs at the receiver's end of a communication system. While essential to the overall data communication cycle, it does not describe the act of converting data into signals; rather, it involves converting signals back into data.
Option B: Modulation – This is the correct answer. Modulation refers to the process of translating digital data into a format suitable for the transmission medium. For instance, in a Wi-Fi network, digital signals are modulated into radio waves. In Ethernet, they are modulated into electrical signals. Modulation ensures the data can travel across physical channels and be interpreted correctly by receiving devices. There are different types of modulation techniques depending on the medium—such as amplitude modulation, frequency modulation, and phase modulation.
Option C: Signal propagation – This term refers to the movement of a signal through a medium (e.g., how a radio wave travels through air). While propagation is crucial for transmission, it doesn't involve the conversion of binary data into signal form. It is a physical phenomenon that happens once the signal has already been generated.
Option D: Data encapsulation – Encapsulation is a concept in data communications where information is wrapped with necessary protocol headers (like TCP/IP headers) before transmission. It occurs before modulation and is related to how data is structured for delivery across networks, not how it is physically transmitted.
In summary, modulation is the key process that enables a computing system to convert binary data into physical signals for transmission over a communication medium. Without modulation, it would not be possible to send digital data effectively across analog or physical channels, especially over long distances or through wireless media.
Question 2:
Which of the following are true statements regarding the usage of checkpoints on Aruba networking switches? (Choose two.)
A. A device restart is necessary when rolling back to an earlier checkpoint.
B. Enabling VSF or VSX on a switch disables checkpoint functionality.
C. A checkpoint serves as a captured state of the active configuration and other essential information at the moment of creation.
D. Checkpoints created by the system are automatically generated after a config update and 5 minutes of no further changes.
E. Aruba’s 5400R series and all AOS-CX switches support the checkpoint capability.
Correct answers: C, D
Explanation:
In Aruba networking switches, particularly those running AOS-CX, checkpoints are a key feature designed to enhance configuration management. They allow network administrators to create saved snapshots of the switch’s running configuration and relevant operational states, making it easier to revert to previous working configurations without requiring a full device reboot.
Option A: A device restart is necessary when rolling back to an earlier checkpoint – This is incorrect. One of the primary advantages of the checkpoint system in AOS-CX is that rolling back to a previous checkpoint does not require a device reboot. The configuration rollback is applied dynamically to the running configuration.
Option B: Enabling VSF or VSX on a switch disables checkpoint functionality – This is false. Checkpoint functionality is not disabled when Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) or Virtual Switching Extension (VSX) is enabled. In fact, Aruba specifically supports checkpoints even in distributed switch environments to allow for consistent configuration management across devices.
Option C: A checkpoint serves as a captured state of the active configuration and other essential information at the moment of creation – This is true. A checkpoint is essentially a snapshot of the switch’s active configuration at a given time. It may include critical elements like interface states, VLAN configurations, and routing settings, making it useful for troubleshooting or quickly reverting changes.
Option D: Checkpoints created by the system are automatically generated after a config update and 5 minutes of no further changes – This is also true. AOS-CX switches have a system-generated checkpoint mechanism that automatically creates a checkpoint after configuration updates if there are no further changes within 5 minutes. This ensures a recent backup is available without needing manual intervention.
Option E: Aruba’s 5400R series and all AOS-CX switches support the checkpoint capability – This is partially true, but misleading, and therefore not the best choice. The 5400R series runs ArubaOS-Switch, not A
Question 3:
When setting up a Link Aggregation Group (LAG), which two interface attributes must be consistent across all participating ports for proper operation? (Choose two.)
A. Physical port number
B. Duplex setting
C. LAG member ID
D. Media or cable type
E. Switch chassis identifier
Correct answers: B, D
Explanation:
When configuring a Link Aggregation Group (LAG)—also known as EtherChannel in Cisco environments or port trunking in others—it is essential that all participating ports share certain key characteristics to ensure reliable and error-free aggregation. A LAG allows multiple physical links to be combined into one logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy.
To ensure proper operation, ports in a LAG must have matching interface settings. If certain attributes differ between member ports, the LAG may not function correctly, leading to degraded performance or even link failures.
Option A: Physical port number – This is not required to be the same. In fact, by definition, a LAG uses multiple different physical ports. The uniqueness of each physical port is essential for the distribution of traffic across multiple links. The physical port number must be unique, not identical.
Option B: Duplex setting – This is correct. All ports in a LAG must have the same duplex setting (either all full-duplex or all half-duplex). Mismatched duplex settings can lead to performance issues, collisions, or dropped packets, making it crucial that this attribute is consistent across all LAG members.
Option C: LAG member ID – This is not a required attribute to match between ports. The LAG ID is a logical identifier for the aggregation group and is configured at the group level. Individual ports don’t need a matching “member ID” attribute, because they are manually or dynamically added to a specific LAG via configuration.
Option D: Media or cable type – This is correct. All ports in a LAG should use the same media type (e.g., copper or fiber) and cable characteristics to ensure uniform signal characteristics and avoid issues like latency or throughput mismatches. While it is technically possible in some setups to mix media, it is not recommended and often not supported, especially in enterprise-grade equipment.
Option E: Switch chassis identifier – This is not relevant to the proper configuration of LAGs within a single switch or even between stacked switches. The chassis identifier is not part of the interface-level configuration required for LAG operation.
In summary, to ensure a properly functioning LAG, all participating interfaces must have matching duplex settings and media types. These ensure uniform operation across all links, enabling effective load balancing and failover support. Thus, the correct answers are B and D.
Question 4:
A customer is dealing with network disruption caused by broadcast storms, affecting 778 game developers using the infrastructure. Which two strategies can help mitigate or prevent broadcast storm issues? (Choose two.)
A. Disable one of the redundant paths manually to quickly contain the issue.
B. Implement Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to dynamically shut down redundant connections.
C. Configure all switch interfaces to half-duplex to rely on CSMA/CD for collision handling.
D. Activate OSPF in single-area mode on Layer 2 switches, avoiding actual routing.
E. Use STP to dynamically deactivate both Designated and Alternate ports as necessary.
Correct answers: A, B
Explanation:
A broadcast storm occurs when there is an accumulation of broadcast and multicast traffic on the LAN, often due to Layer 2 loops. In Ethernet networks, especially large or complex ones, such loops can quickly flood the network, degrade performance, and cause widespread connectivity issues. The scenario presented describes such a case impacting hundreds of users, indicating an urgent need for loop prevention and broadcast containment strategies.
Here’s a breakdown of the options:
Option A: Disable one of the redundant paths manually to quickly contain the issue – This is correct. In emergency situations, manually disabling one of the redundant switch ports that forms part of a loop can serve as a quick and effective way to break the loop, immediately halting the broadcast storm. While not scalable or ideal for long-term use, manual intervention is a valid containment tactic during network crises.
Option B: Implement Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to dynamically shut down redundant connections – This is also correct. Spanning Tree Protocol (and its variants like RSTP and MSTP) are specifically designed to prevent loops in Ethernet networks. STP dynamically identifies and blocks redundant paths to maintain a loop-free topology, while still allowing for redundancy in the event of link failure. Implementing STP is the best long-term and automated approach to prevent broadcast storms caused by loops.
Option C: Configure all switch interfaces to half-duplex to rely on CSMA/CD for collision handling – This is incorrect and outdated. Modern networks operate in full-duplex mode, rendering CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) obsolete. Configuring interfaces to half-duplex would degrade performance and not prevent broadcast storms, which are not caused by collisions but by uncontrolled frame forwarding in loops.
Option D: Activate OSPF in single-area mode on Layer 2 switches, avoiding actual routing – This is incorrect. OSPF is a Layer 3 routing protocol and has no role in preventing broadcast storms, which are Layer 2 issues. Also, activating a routing protocol on a device that isn't routing serves no functional purpose and will not help with loop prevention or broadcast containment.
Option E: Use STP to dynamically deactivate both Designated and Alternate ports as necessary – This is partially incorrect. In STP, the protocol only deactivates Alternate (backup) ports to prevent loops. Designated ports are active and forward traffic. Disabling Designated ports would disrupt network connectivity. This statement misrepresents how STP functions.
In conclusion, the two effective strategies for managing and preventing broadcast storms are:
A: Manually disabling a redundant link during a crisis (a short-term fix), and
B: Implementing STP, which provides an automated and long-term solution by dynamically managing redundant links.
Question 5:
Which command allows you to create a secure SFTP-based backup of the secondary software image on an Aruba AOS-CX switch?
A. backup secondary sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi
B. copy secondary sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi
C. copy sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi secondary
D. copy secondary tftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
In Aruba AOS-CX switches, performing backups of software images (especially the secondary image, which is often used as a recovery or alternate boot option) is a common practice for disaster recovery, upgrade rollback, and image management. Aruba AOS-CX uses a command syntax that closely follows standard structured formats, and backing up images over secure protocols such as SFTP is recommended over insecure ones like TFTP.
Let’s analyze the options one by one:
Option A: backup secondary sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi – This is not valid syntax in AOS-CX. Aruba switches do not use the backup keyword for image operations. Instead, the copy command is the standard method for copying files between locations or between the switch and remote systems.
Option B: copy secondary sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi – This is correct. This command follows the proper AOS-CX syntax and logic: it copies the secondary image (the source) to the specified SFTP location (the destination). In this context, the file on the switch (secondary image) is backed up to the remote SFTP server, preserving its filename or updating it as specified. This is a secure method of backing up the secondary software image.
Option C: copy sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi secondary – This command does the opposite of what is asked in the question. It copies the image from the remote SFTP server to the switch's secondary image slot, effectively restoring or updating the secondary image. This would overwrite the current secondary image, not back it up.
Option D: copy secondary tftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi – While the syntax is correct, the protocol used is TFTP, which is insecure and lacks encryption. The question specifically asks for a secure SFTP-based backup. TFTP should be avoided for critical files like system images due to its lack of security features.
In summary, the correct way to securely back up the secondary software image to a remote server using SFTP is:
B: copy secondary sftp://[email protected]/GL.10.04.0003.swi
This ensures the image is transferred securely and correctly from the switch to the remote location for safekeeping.
Question 6:
Which option best reflects today’s design expectations for enterprise network switches?
A. Older switch models were designed to support high PoE demands and were built with future-readiness in mind.
B. AC to DC converters typically provide the power needed for PoE, and most Ethernet switches already offer wired encryption for IoT protection.
C. Wired client connections remain dominant, with only occasional PoE requirements managed by designated switches.
D. The growing trend toward wireless access and the proliferation of IoT devices increases demand for PoE-capable ports and robust port-based security.
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Modern enterprise network switch design is heavily influenced by shifts in workforce mobility, IoT proliferation, and increased reliance on wireless access. As businesses expand their digital infrastructure, there’s a growing need for switches that can support high power demands, offer tight security controls, and provide scalability for future technologies.
Let’s examine each option:
Option A: Older switch models were designed to support high PoE demands and were built with future-readiness in mind – This is incorrect. Older switches were generally not built with today's high PoE demands in mind. They often lacked support for PoE+ (IEEE 802.3at) or PoE++ (IEEE 802.3bt) standards and were not designed with emerging workloads like wireless APs, surveillance systems, and IoT devices in mind. While some enterprise-grade legacy switches offered basic PoE capabilities, they were not future-ready for current multi-gigabit and high-power scenarios.
Option B: AC to DC converters typically provide the power needed for PoE, and most Ethernet switches already offer wired encryption for IoT protection – This is partially true, but it overstates the prevalence of features like wired encryption. While PoE is delivered via internal or external power supplies and sometimes via AC/DC converters, wired encryption (such as MACsec) is not universally implemented on all switches, especially at the access layer. This option also doesn’t address broader design expectations like port density, scalability, and role in wireless/IoT integration.
Option C: Wired client connections remain dominant, with only occasional PoE requirements managed by designated switches – This reflects a declining model. While wired connections still exist (especially in data centers or specific industrial settings), wireless connectivity has become dominant in office and campus networks. The rise of VoIP phones, wireless access points, security cameras, and IoT sensors means that PoE is no longer an occasional requirement—it’s now an essential design element in most switch deployments.
Option D: The growing trend toward wireless access and the proliferation of IoT devices increases demand for PoE-capable ports and robust port-based security – This is correct. Today's network environments are driven by the need to support:
Wireless access points (many of which require PoE+ or higher),
IoT devices, which are often deployed in large numbers and depend on both power and connectivity via Ethernet,
Port-based security mechanisms such as 802.1X, MACsec, dynamic VLAN assignments, and device profiling to mitigate threats from a wide array of connected devices.
Modern switches are thus expected to support:
High PoE budgets, including PoE++ for devices like pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ) cameras or multi-radio APs.
Advanced security features that enforce policies per port or device.
Scalability for evolving network requirements such as increasing bandwidth, device density, and smart device management.
In conclusion, Option D accurately represents current enterprise switch design expectations, highlighting the shift toward supporting wireless-first networks, IoT integration, and security-focused architectures.
Question 7:
What is the primary function of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a switched Ethernet network?
A. To optimize bandwidth usage across redundant links
B. To prevent broadcast loops and network storms
C. To assign IP addresses to switch ports
D. To encrypt data transmitted between switches
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 network protocol that is essential for the stability and reliability of switched Ethernet networks. Its primary function is to prevent broadcast loops, which can occur when there are redundant paths between switches.
Option A: To optimize bandwidth usage across redundant links – This is incorrect because the original STP (IEEE 802.1D) actually disables redundant paths by placing them into a blocking state. While newer versions like RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) and MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol) improve convergence times and support multiple spanning trees, they still prioritize loop prevention over bandwidth optimization. Protocols like EtherChannel or Link Aggregation are designed specifically for bandwidth optimization, not STP.
Option B: To prevent broadcast loops and network storms – This is the correct answer. In a switched network, redundant links can create Layer 2 loops, which are dangerous because Ethernet frames (especially broadcasts and multicasts) have no TTL (Time to Live) mechanism like IP packets. Without STP, frames could circulate endlessly, consuming bandwidth and causing what are known as broadcast storms. STP dynamically blocks certain ports to break the loop, ensuring a loop-free topology while preserving redundancy for failover.
Option C: To assign IP addresses to switch ports – This is not the function of STP. IP addressing is handled at Layer 3, typically through DHCP or static configuration. Switches at Layer 2 do not require IP addresses on their ports unless they are Layer 3 switches performing routing functions or if you’re managing the switch via its management interface.
Option D: To encrypt data transmitted between switches – STP does not provide encryption. Encryption in switched networks might involve protocols like MACsec or IPsec, but STP operates purely at Layer 2 and is focused on topology control, not data security.
In summary, Spanning Tree Protocol is a vital mechanism in Ethernet networks that ensures a loop-free topology by detecting redundant links and selectively blocking ports as necessary. This prevents broadcast loops and the potential for network-wide broadcast storms, which can cripple performance. While it sacrifices some bandwidth by blocking redundant paths, it plays a crucial role in network resilience and stability. Therefore, the correct and most accurate choice is B.
Question 8:
Which of the following best describes a "management VLAN" on a managed network switch?
A. A VLAN used for backup purposes
B. A VLAN designated for accessing and administering switch configurations
C. A VLAN for routing inter-VLAN traffic
D. A VLAN specifically for VoIP traffic
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
A management VLAN is a dedicated virtual LAN used for accessing and administering network devices such as switches, routers, and access points. It is a critical part of the network management infrastructure and is designed to separate management traffic from user data, VoIP, or other application traffic to improve security, performance, and organization within the network.
Option A: A VLAN used for backup purposes – This is incorrect. While VLANs can be used in various specialized contexts, backups of switch configurations or other devices are typically handled by file transfer protocols (like TFTP, SFTP) and are not tied to a specific VLAN type. A management VLAN is not intended for backup operations but for device administration access.
Option B: A VLAN designated for accessing and administering switch configurations – This is the correct definition. The management VLAN is configured on managed switches to provide a path for administrators to remotely log in (e.g., via SSH, HTTPS, or SNMP) and manage the device. Best practices dictate that this VLAN should be logically isolated from user traffic to reduce the attack surface and maintain secure access to infrastructure devices. For example, VLAN 1 is the default management VLAN on many switches, although best practices suggest using a non-default VLAN ID to enhance security.
Option C: A VLAN for routing inter-VLAN traffic – This is incorrect. Routing between VLANs is handled by Layer 3 devices (such as routers or multilayer switches) and involves concepts like SVIs (Switched Virtual Interfaces). While an SVI may be created for the management VLAN, the routing of inter-VLAN traffic is not the purpose of a management VLAN—it is more about administrative access, not traffic forwarding between user VLANs.
Option D: A VLAN specifically for VoIP traffic – This is incorrect. VoIP traffic is often separated into its own dedicated VLAN, referred to as a voice VLAN, to prioritize audio traffic and apply QoS policies. This is distinct from a management VLAN, which is not optimized for or intended to carry voice traffic.
In modern networks, the management VLAN plays a critical role in network segmentation and security. By keeping management access isolated from other traffic types, it reduces the risk of accidental disruptions or malicious attacks on critical infrastructure. Access to the management VLAN is typically restricted via ACLs, firewalls, or role-based access controls, and is often reachable only from specific IP ranges or administrative workstations.
Thus, the best description of a management VLAN is clearly B: a VLAN designated for accessing and administering switch configurations.
Question 9:
What is one key benefit of implementing port authentication using IEEE 802.1X on edge switches?
A. It provides MAC address filtering
B. It restricts unauthorized devices from connecting to the network
C. It eliminates the need for firewalls
D. It improves packet forwarding performance
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
IEEE 802.1X is a port-based network access control protocol that plays a critical role in securing wired and wireless networks by controlling device access at the network edge. When deployed on edge switches, 802.1X allows organizations to enforce authentication policies before allowing a device or user to access the network.
Option A: It provides MAC address filtering – This is incorrect. While MAC filtering is a basic form of network access control, it is not part of 802.1X. MAC filtering is static and can be easily spoofed, offering limited security. In contrast, 802.1X supports dynamic, credential-based authentication (e.g., via usernames/passwords, certificates) using RADIUS as a backend.
Option B: It restricts unauthorized devices from connecting to the network – This is the correct answer. One of the primary purposes of IEEE 802.1X is to prevent unauthorized access by requiring devices to authenticate before being allowed onto the network. The protocol works by placing each switch port into an unauthorized state by default. Once a connected device successfully authenticates through a supplicant (e.g., a workstation or IP phone) using credentials validated by an authentication server (typically RADIUS), the port is authorized and normal traffic is allowed. If authentication fails, access is denied or limited to a guest VLAN or remediation network.
Option C: It eliminates the need for firewalls – This is false. While 802.1X strengthens network access control, it does not replace firewalls, which provide critical perimeter and internal segmentation protection at Layers 3 and 4. Firewalls enforce traffic policies, monitor flows, and block malicious activity; 802.1X handles initial access authentication, but it doesn’t provide ongoing inspection or filtering of data packets.
Option D: It improves packet forwarding performance – This is incorrect. 802.1X is a security mechanism, not a performance enhancement tool. While it can enhance network security posture, it doesn’t accelerate packet forwarding. In fact, if anything, it may slightly delay access during the authentication handshake, but this is negligible and expected in exchange for secure access.
In practice, organizations implement 802.1X on edge switches to ensure that only authorized and compliant devices gain access to the corporate network. It’s commonly used in conjunction with Network Access Control (NAC) systems that can enforce additional policies, such as posture checks (e.g., antivirus running, OS version) before full network access is granted.
In conclusion, the key benefit of deploying IEEE 802.1X on edge switches is clearly B: It restricts unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, thereby protecting the network from rogue devices, potential breaches, and policy violations.
Question 10:
Which Aruba switch feature allows administrators to schedule the automatic installation of software updates from a central location?
A. Firmware Sync
B. Scheduled Update Deployment
C. Software Management Profile
D. Orchestrated Upgrade Manager
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
In Aruba’s network infrastructure—especially within Aruba Central, their cloud-based network management platform—automating software updates is a critical feature for maintaining device security, stability, and consistency across large switch deployments. Aruba addresses this need through a feature called the Software Management Profile, which allows centralized and scheduled control over firmware versions on Aruba AOS-CX switches and other managed devices.
Let’s review each option to understand why C is the correct answer:
Option A: Firmware Sync – This term is not a standard Aruba feature related to scheduling or pushing software updates from a centralized location. While syncing firmware might sound similar, this term typically refers to manual processes or operations to synchronize firmware versions across devices, but it does not provide automated scheduling capabilities.
Option B: Scheduled Update Deployment – While this term describes what the feature does, it is not the official name of any Aruba switch feature. Aruba does support scheduled updates, but that functionality is provided under a specific configuration called the Software Management Profile, not by a feature with this exact name.
Option C: Software Management Profile – This is the correct answer. Aruba Central allows administrators to define Software Management Profiles, which are used to:
Specify desired firmware versions for groups of switches
Schedule automated upgrades
Enable compliance enforcement to ensure all devices run the designated image
Centralize update management for scalability and consistency
This profile ensures that network administrators can automate software versioning and upgrade workflows, reducing manual intervention and ensuring device security across enterprise networks. It supports non-disruptive upgrades, can be coordinated with maintenance windows, and is tightly integrated with Aruba’s cloud-managed switch infrastructure.Option D: Orchestrated Upgrade Manager – This sounds plausible but is not an Aruba product or feature name. Aruba does use terms like orchestration in broader contexts, but there is no specific tool or feature officially called "Orchestrated Upgrade Manager" in the Aruba switching ecosystem.
In enterprise environments, managing firmware updates across hundreds or thousands of network switches manually is impractical and error-prone. The Software Management Profile allows administrators to define a standardized, centralized policy for software lifecycle management. It also integrates with other Aruba Central capabilities like group configuration templates, compliance reports, and version enforcement to maintain network consistency.
