HP HPE0-J68 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
You're recommending a new Nimble storage solution to a client who recently experienced data loss with their current system. Which two features of Nimble storage would best address their concerns about data protection and recovery?
A. Fast RAID restoration
B. Data deduplication
C. Data compression
D. Encryption support
E. Triple-parity RAID protection
Answer: A and E
Explanation:
When considering a new Nimble storage solution to address a client's concerns about data protection and recovery, the most relevant features are those that ensure data resilience and rapid recovery in case of failure.
Fast RAID restoration (A) is an important feature for data protection because it enables the system to quickly recover data in the event of a failure. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is used to store data across multiple disks to ensure redundancy. If one disk fails, the system can rebuild the data from other disks. The ability to restore RAID quickly reduces downtime, ensuring the business can continue functioning with minimal disruption. This feature is especially important for businesses that rely on continuous access to data and cannot afford prolonged periods of recovery.
Triple-parity RAID protection (E) is another critical feature for data protection and recovery. Parity is used to store extra data to help reconstruct lost information in case of a disk failure. Triple-parity RAID provides an even higher level of redundancy than traditional RAID levels, as it can withstand three simultaneous disk failures without data loss. This makes the system more robust against data loss, offering greater peace of mind for clients who have experienced data loss in the past.
While data deduplication (B) and data compression (C) are useful for improving storage efficiency by reducing the amount of redundant data stored and saving disk space, they are not primarily focused on data protection and recovery. These features would help optimize storage but do not directly address concerns about protecting data during system failures.
Encryption support (D) is important for data security, but it does not directly contribute to data recovery or protection in the event of disk failure. While encryption protects data from unauthorized access, it is not primarily aimed at ensuring reliability and availability of data during a failure.
Therefore, the most relevant features for addressing data protection and recovery concerns in this context are A (Fast RAID restoration) and E (Triple-parity RAID protection), which provide fast recovery and high redundancy for safeguarding data.
Question 2
Which utility is used to manage and configure an HPE MSA 2052 storage system?
A. HPE InfoSight
B. Storage Management Utility (SMU)
C. Command Management Console (CMC)
D. StoreServ Management Console (SSMC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The HPE MSA 2052 storage system is managed and configured using the Storage Management Utility (SMU) (B). The SMU provides a user-friendly interface for configuring and monitoring the MSA storage system, allowing administrators to easily manage storage resources, configure settings, and perform maintenance tasks. It is designed specifically for managing HPE MSA series storage systems, including the MSA 2052.
Option A, HPE InfoSight, is a cloud-based AI-driven analytics tool that provides predictive insights and proactive support for HPE storage systems, including 3PAR, Nimble, and ProLiant servers. While InfoSight offers valuable information for storage optimization and problem resolution, it is not the utility used to configure or manage the MSA 2052.
Option C, Command Management Console (CMC), is used for managing and monitoring HPE’s Apollo and Synergy systems but is not used specifically for the MSA 2052.
Option D, StoreServ Management Console (SSMC), is used to manage HPE 3PAR storage systems, not the MSA series. The SSMC offers a unified management interface for HPE 3PAR environments, providing comprehensive control over system configuration and monitoring.
Therefore, the correct utility for managing the HPE MSA 2052 storage system is B (Storage Management Utility), as it is specifically designed for the MSA series and provides the necessary tools for configuring and maintaining the system.
Question 3
A customer operating a VMware vSphere 6.5 environment with HPE DL380 Gen10 servers and Nimble HF40 storage wants to upgrade their hypervisor. What tool should they use to verify firmware and compatibility?
A. SAN Health Diagnostic Tool
B. SPOCK compatibility database
C. HPE OneView
D. SAN Design Reference Guide
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a customer is planning to upgrade their hypervisor, particularly in environments like VMware vSphere 6.5 with HPE DL380 Gen10 servers and Nimble HF40 storage, verifying hardware and firmware compatibility is essential. The tool that specifically helps to ensure this compatibility in HPE environments is the SPOCK compatibility database.
SPOCK Compatibility Database: The SPOCK (Single Point of Configuration Knowledge) database is a comprehensive tool provided by HPE that is designed to ensure compatibility between various hardware, firmware, and software components. This tool helps users verify that their server hardware, storage systems, and software versions (like VMware) work together seamlessly. Given that the customer is upgrading their hypervisor, the SPOCK database is the go-to resource for confirming that the version of VMware vSphere they are upgrading to is compatible with their specific HPE servers and storage systems.
SAN Health Diagnostic Tool: The SAN Health Diagnostic Tool (A) is a tool that helps diagnose issues with SAN configurations and health. While it is valuable for troubleshooting SAN issues, it is not specifically designed for verifying compatibility between firmware, hypervisor versions, and hardware, so it’s not the right choice for this scenario.
HPE OneView: HPE OneView (C) is an infrastructure management tool that provides unified management for HPE hardware, including servers, storage, and networking. It offers a comprehensive view of the infrastructure, but its primary focus is on monitoring and managing hardware resources, not on verifying specific compatibility between hypervisor versions and firmware. Therefore, it does not serve the purpose of verifying compatibility in this context.
SAN Design Reference Guide: The SAN Design Reference Guide (D) is a resource for designing and deploying storage area networks (SANs) effectively. It’s a useful guide for planning storage architectures but does not focus on verifying compatibility with specific software or firmware updates, making it unsuitable for verifying VMware hypervisor compatibility.
In summary, B is the correct answer, as SPOCK is the tool specifically designed to check compatibility between hardware, firmware, and software in HPE environments, particularly in scenarios like upgrading VMware vSphere.
Question 4
A customer needs a shared storage solution for their department's data that will be accessed primarily by Windows laptops and other personal devices. What is the most suitable solution?
A. Block storage accessed via Fibre Channel
B. Block storage accessed via SAS
C. Object storage using an S3-compatible interface
D. File storage accessed through SMB protocol
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the scenario where the customer needs a shared storage solution primarily for Windows laptops and personal devices, the best solution is file storage accessed through the SMB protocol. This is because SMB (Server Message Block) is a network file-sharing protocol that is highly compatible with Windows systems and is commonly used in environments where file sharing is required between Windows-based devices.
SMB Protocol: The SMB protocol (D) is specifically designed for file sharing over a network and is natively supported by Windows laptops and most personal devices. It provides an efficient way for multiple users or devices to access shared files on a network. Since the customer is using Windows laptops and personal devices, the SMB protocol provides seamless access to shared storage, which is essential for departments requiring collaborative file sharing, especially in a Windows-centric environment.
Block Storage via Fibre Channel: Block storage accessed via Fibre Channel (A) is a high-performance storage solution that provides low-level access to storage blocks. It is commonly used in high-performance environments like databases or enterprise applications, but it is not designed for shared file access in a manner suited to personal devices. Additionally, Fibre Channel typically requires more complex setups and is less convenient for small-to-medium office environments where file sharing is more important.
Block Storage via SAS: Block storage accessed via SAS (B) also provides low-level access to storage blocks, similar to Fibre Channel, but it is typically used for direct-attached storage (DAS) or in high-performance setups. It is not the ideal choice for a shared storage solution for file access, as it lacks the file-level sharing capabilities provided by SMB. It would require more configuration and is less flexible for the use case described.
Object Storage using an S3-compatible interface: Object storage using an S3-compatible interface (C) is excellent for scalable and cloud-native applications where data needs to be stored in large volumes, often over the internet. However, object storage does not support the file-sharing capabilities that SMB offers in a typical Windows-based network environment. It is also not as user-friendly for accessing data directly from personal devices as file storage solutions are.
In conclusion, D is the correct answer because SMB is the file-sharing protocol that best fits the customer’s needs, offering native support for Windows laptops and personal devices. It provides easy access to shared files in a collaborative environment.
Question 5
After deploying a Nimble all-flash array, a customer wants to connect their Windows server to the array. Which HPE tool should be used to streamline this process on the server?
A. StoreServ Management Console
B. Network channel bonding
C. HPE Connection Manager
D. Centralized Management Console
Answer: C
Explanation:
To streamline the process of connecting a Windows server to a Nimble all-flash array, the appropriate tool to use is HPE Connection Manager (C). HPE Connection Manager simplifies the connection of servers to storage arrays, including the Nimble all-flash array. It automates the configuration of network settings, multipathing, and other connectivity-related tasks, ensuring a seamless connection between the server and the array. This tool is designed to simplify the connection process, making it easier for administrators to establish and manage the storage connections.
Option A, StoreServ Management Console, is specifically used to manage HPE 3PAR StoreServ storage systems, not the Nimble all-flash array. While it is a useful tool for managing HPE 3PAR systems, it is not applicable for this scenario.
Option B, Network channel bonding, is a network configuration technique that involves combining multiple network interfaces for redundancy or increased throughput. While it might be useful for increasing network performance or reliability, it is not a specific tool for connecting a Windows server to a Nimble storage array.
Option D, Centralized Management Console, is a broader management tool that can be used for various HPE systems, but it is not tailored specifically for connecting a Windows server to the Nimble all-flash array. The more specialized tool for this task is HPE Connection Manager.
Therefore, C is the correct answer, as HPE Connection Manager is designed to streamline the connection process between a Windows server and a Nimble all-flash array.
Question 6
A small business recently installed an HPE MSA and two SN3000B Fibre Channel switches on their own. After creating a single volume, they report seeing multiple volumes. What action should they take?
A. Enable Smart SAN functionality on the MSA
B. Set the volume’s performance tier affinity
C. Activate zoning on the SN3000B switches
D. Turn on MPIO on the host server
Answer: C
Explanation:
The issue of seeing multiple volumes instead of just the single volume created typically points to a problem with the Fibre Channel zoning configuration on the SN3000B switches. Zoning is a critical aspect of Fibre Channel storage networks, as it defines which devices (servers, storage arrays, etc.) can communicate with each other. Without proper zoning, the server might see multiple volumes, as it could be exposed to devices that are not intended to be visible or accessible to it.
By activating zoning on the SN3000B switches (C), you can restrict the visibility of devices between the server and the storage system, ensuring that the server only sees the specific volume that was created. Zoning helps to isolate traffic between devices, improving both security and performance by reducing unnecessary access between devices that shouldn't communicate.
Option A, Enable Smart SAN functionality on the MSA, refers to a feature that can help simplify SAN management by automating some configuration tasks. While it can be helpful in certain situations, it is not the direct solution for resolving issues related to multiple visible volumes in a Fibre Channel environment, which is more likely a zoning issue.
Option B, Set the volume’s performance tier affinity, is related to tiered storage settings and would not resolve the problem of seeing multiple volumes. This option pertains to performance optimization rather than device visibility in the SAN.
Option D, Turn on MPIO on the host server, refers to enabling Multipath I/O (MPIO), which helps manage multiple paths between the server and storage for redundancy and load balancing. While MPIO is important for improving storage access reliability and performance, it does not address the issue of multiple visible volumes caused by improper zoning.
Therefore, the correct action to take is C, to activate zoning on the SN3000B switches, which will resolve the issue of seeing unintended volumes.
Question 7
A customer is configuring a new StoreOnce VSA and needs to expand its storage capacity. Which two steps are valid methods for achieving this?
A. Confirm availability of adequate LTU licenses
B. Add an additional virtual hard drive to the VSA
C. Configure the cloud bank container after system boot
D. Set up the cloud bank container using the vCenter interface
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
When configuring a StoreOnce Virtual Storage Appliance (VSA) and expanding its storage capacity, there are a few methods available to increase capacity effectively.
Add an additional virtual hard drive to the VSA: This method (B) involves adding more storage by provisioning additional virtual hard drives to the StoreOnce VSA. This is a common and straightforward way to expand storage capacity. By adding virtual hard drives, the system can increase its available storage pool. It is an easily manageable process that is typically performed through the hypervisor managing the VSA.
Configure the cloud bank container after system boot: The cloud bank container is a feature that allows the StoreOnce VSA to extend its capacity by using cloud storage as an additional tier. Configuring the cloud bank container (C) after system boot enables the integration of cloud storage, which acts as an extension of the VSA’s storage. This method allows the user to add cloud storage dynamically, providing flexibility in managing storage resources. After booting the system, the cloud bank can be configured to link the VSA with cloud-based storage.
Other options are less relevant for the expansion of storage capacity:
Confirm availability of adequate LTU licenses (A) is important for ensuring the VSA is licensed to use the required features and capacity, but it is not a direct method for expanding storage. The LTU (License To Use) license ensures that the system has the correct permissions but does not affect the physical or virtual storage expansion directly.
Set up the cloud bank container using the vCenter interface (D) is not a valid method for expanding storage. The cloud bank container setup is independent of the vCenter interface and generally occurs through the StoreOnce management interface rather than through vCenter.
In conclusion, B and C are the valid methods for expanding storage on the StoreOnce VSA, as they directly increase storage capacity by adding virtual disks or leveraging cloud storage.
Question 8
A customer using an HPE MSA 2040 with SFF drives and virtual pools is planning to upgrade to an MSA 2050. What is the correct approach for migrating data with minimal disruption?
A. Purchase a peer migration license for online transfer
B. Purchase a peer migration license for offline transfer
C. Move drives to the new system while both systems are online
D. Move drives to the new system while both systems are offline
Answer: A
Explanation:
When migrating data from an HPE MSA 2040 to an MSA 2050, especially when using Small Form Factor (SFF) drives and virtual pools, the goal is to achieve minimal disruption to the ongoing operations and data access. The best approach for this is to use an online transfer method, which ensures that the migration occurs while minimizing downtime and allowing continuous access to the data.
Purchase a peer migration license for online transfer: The correct approach is to use a peer migration license for online transfer (A). This method allows for data migration between systems while both systems remain operational, providing minimal disruption to users. Peer-to-peer migration facilitates data transfer without requiring the systems to be taken offline. This is the preferred method when migration needs to be done efficiently with minimal downtime, especially in environments where availability is critical.
Purchase a peer migration license for offline transfer: Offline transfer (B) would involve taking the systems offline to perform the migration. While this may reduce the complexity of the migration process, it introduces downtime and disruption, which is generally undesirable in most production environments. This method is more disruptive and would lead to longer periods where the data is unavailable, so it is not the best option for minimal disruption.
Move drives to the new system while both systems are online: Simply moving the drives (C) from one system to another while both are online is not a supported migration method for MSA storage systems. The MSA series does not support direct physical transfer of drives between systems while maintaining data access without first migrating data. This could lead to data corruption or system instability, making it an unsafe and unsupported approach.
Move drives to the new system while both systems are offline: Similarly, moving drives (D) while both systems are offline is not an optimal solution. While it would ensure the integrity of the data during the transfer, it requires significant downtime and is generally not necessary with modern migration methods, such as online peer migration.
Therefore, the correct approach for minimal disruption is A, using the peer migration license for online transfer, which ensures that the migration occurs with minimal downtime and allows for continuous access to data during the process.
Question 9
A customer is deploying an HPE 3PAR StoreServ storage array in a high-availability environment. They need to ensure that performance is evenly distributed across all system resources. Which feature should be highlighted to support this requirement?
A. Adaptive Flash Cache
B. Wide Striping
C. Thin Deduplication
D. Virtual Copy
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a high-availability environment, performance distribution is crucial to ensure that all system resources, such as storage, CPU, and memory, are used efficiently. The most appropriate feature to address this requirement in an HPE 3PAR StoreServ storage array is Wide Striping (B).
Wide Striping is a technique where data is distributed across all available disks in the storage array, rather than being concentrated on a subset of disks. This ensures that no single disk or set of disks becomes a performance bottleneck. By spreading the data across the entire array, wide striping helps ensure that both I/O operations and storage capacity are evenly balanced, thereby improving both performance and fault tolerance in high-availability configurations.
Option A, Adaptive Flash Cache, refers to a flash-based cache that accelerates read operations, especially for random read-heavy workloads. While it improves read performance, it does not specifically address load balancing across system resources. It is more focused on read caching to improve performance for certain workloads.
Option C, Thin Deduplication, reduces storage space by eliminating redundant data but is not designed to balance performance across resources. While deduplication helps with storage efficiency, it does not directly improve the distribution of performance across the array's resources.
Option D, Virtual Copy, is a feature for creating point-in-time snapshots of data. While useful for backup and disaster recovery, Virtual Copy does not focus on performance distribution across the system.
Therefore, the correct answer is B, Wide Striping, because it ensures even distribution of performance across all available system resources in a high-availability environment.
Question 10
You're assisting a customer with configuring an HPE Nimble storage array for disaster recovery. Which two replication features should be configured to ensure data can be recovered at a secondary site?
A. Remote Snapshot Replication
B. Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. Synchronous Replication
D. Asynchronous Replication
E. File-Based Copy Migration
Answer: A and D
Explanation:
For disaster recovery with an HPE Nimble storage array, it is crucial to ensure that data is replicated to a secondary site and can be recovered in case of a failure at the primary site. The two most appropriate replication features for this scenario are Remote Snapshot Replication (A) and Asynchronous Replication (D).
Remote Snapshot Replication (A) is a key feature in HPE Nimble Storage that allows you to replicate snapshots of data from one array to another, typically at a remote site. Snapshots capture a point-in-time view of the data, and replication allows you to maintain an up-to-date copy of that data at the secondary site. This ensures that in the event of a disaster at the primary site, you can quickly recover the most recent version of the data. This feature is crucial for disaster recovery.
Asynchronous Replication (D) is typically used for disaster recovery because it allows for data to be replicated from the primary site to the secondary site with some latency. In this setup, the data is replicated in batches, rather than in real-time, which reduces the strain on the primary site and ensures that replication occurs without significantly impacting performance. Asynchronous replication is ideal for scenarios where continuous, real-time replication is not required, but where timely recovery of data at a secondary site is still needed.
Option B, Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS), is a Microsoft Windows service used to create point-in-time snapshots of volumes, typically for backup purposes. While useful for backup, it does not provide replication between sites for disaster recovery.
Option C, Synchronous Replication, is often used when zero data loss is a requirement, as it replicates data to the secondary site in real-time. However, this typically comes with a higher impact on performance and may not be the best choice for all environments. It also requires both sites to be highly available and often requires a dedicated high-speed link between the sites. Since asynchronous replication is often sufficient for disaster recovery with less impact on primary site performance, synchronous replication may not be necessary for all use cases.
Option E, File-Based Copy Migration, is a feature used for migrating files between systems but does not address replication for disaster recovery. It is primarily focused on file management, not on ensuring data recovery at a secondary site.
Therefore, the correct features for ensuring data can be recovered at a secondary site are A (Remote Snapshot Replication) and D (Asynchronous Replication). These features provide data replication for disaster recovery with the flexibility of minimal impact on primary site performance.
