ServiceNow CIS-RC Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question No 1:

When utilizing a Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) platform for risk management, the Risk Statement plays a crucial role in defining and assessing potential risks. A key part of the Risk Statement involves assigning Risk Scoring values, which quantify the likelihood and potential impact of a risk. These scoring values are essential in determining the overall risk level and in guiding mitigation strategies.

Which record type inherits the Risk Scoring values directly from the Risk Statement?

A. Risk Criteria Matrix
B. Risk Framework
C. Registered Risk
D. Risk Response Issue

Correct Answer: C. Registered Risk

Explanation:

In a risk management system, the Risk Statement serves as the foundation for defining risks, providing details like cause, event, and impact. It is also where the Risk Scoring values, such as likelihood, impact, and overall risk rating, are assigned. These values are essential for quantifying the severity and probability of a risk occurring.

The Registered Risk record represents an actual instance of a risk that has been identified and formally documented. It directly inherits the Risk Scoring values from the Risk Statement because it applies these theoretical risks to a real-world context. This ensures consistency and traceability when it comes to risk assessment across the organization. The values are passed down from the Risk Statement to any associated Registered Risks, aligning the theoretical risk with the operational risk monitoring.

Other options such as the Risk Criteria Matrix and Risk Framework are tools that assist in defining how risks are assessed and managed but do not inherit scoring values directly. Similarly, a Risk Response Issue is generated to address specific risks but does not automatically inherit Risk Scoring values—it is based on the already-assessed risk.

Therefore, when a Risk Statement is created and scored, any Registered Risk linked to it will automatically inherit those scoring values, ensuring that the organization remains aligned in its strategic and operational risk management efforts.

Question No 2:

Which sequence accurately represents the stages of the Risk Management Lifecycle according to best practices for assessing and mitigating risks in an organization?

A. Assess, Identify and Plan, Control, Review
B. Control, Review, Assess, Identify and Plan
C. Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, Review
D. Identify and Plan, Review, Assess, Control

Correct Answer: C. Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, Review

Explanation:

Risk management is a structured and systematic approach used by organizations to identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks that may impact operations, objectives, or assets. The Risk Management Lifecycle follows a logical progression to help mitigate risks effectively, typically consisting of four stages: Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, and Review.

• Identify and Plan: This is the initial stage, where risks are identified. It involves brainstorming, gathering information, and collaborating with stakeholders to determine the internal and external factors that may pose risks to the organization. The planning part outlines how risks will be documented, categorized, and communicated throughout the process.

• Assess: During this phase, the identified risks are thoroughly analyzed. Tools such as qualitative and quantitative analysis or risk matrices are used to prioritize risks based on their likelihood and potential impact. This phase helps assess the severity of each risk, allowing organizations to focus on the most critical ones.

• Control: After assessment, this phase involves implementing risk response strategies. This can include risk avoidance, mitigation, transference (through mechanisms like insurance), or acceptance. The goal is to reduce the risks to acceptable levels and ensure preparedness for any incidents.

• Review: Risk management is an ongoing process. In this final stage, risks and controls are monitored continuously, and reviews are conducted regularly to ensure that the risk management framework remains effective. This phase also allows organizations to adapt to new emerging risks or changes in the environment.

By following this structured process, organizations can proactively address risks and enhance their resilience in the face of potential threats, ensuring smooth and continuous operations.

Question No 3:

In the context of compliance score calculation within a risk or compliance management system, how are the individual control weights determined?

A. Controls do not have equal weight by default.
B. Control weights are fixed and cannot be modified.
C. Each Control has a default weight of 10 unless otherwise specified.
D. The weight of a Control is determined at the time of its creation and can be customized.

Correct Answers:
A. Controls do not have equal weight by default.
D. The weight of a Control is determined at the time of its creation and can be customized.

Explanation:

Compliance scoring is an important process within Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) platforms, helping organizations measure their adherence to regulatory requirements and internal policies. Central to this process is how each control contributes to the overall compliance score. The control weight represents how significant each control is in the context of compliance.

• Option A is correct because by default, controls are not equally weighted. This allows organizations to prioritize specific controls based on their relevance, impact, or criticality. For example, a control that addresses a critical cybersecurity vulnerability may carry more weight than one related to administrative tasks. This approach ensures that the most important areas have a larger influence on the compliance score.

• Option D is also correct. When creating controls, the weight assigned to each control can be customized. This means that organizations can adjust the weight according to the control’s importance to their specific compliance needs, regulatory requirements, or business objectives.

On the other hand:

• Option B is incorrect because control weights are generally not fixed. They are customizable based on the specific requirements of the organization or the compliance framework.

• Option C is misleading. While some systems may default to a weight of 10, this is not a universal standard. Control weights can vary and are typically adjusted according to the control’s significance within the overall compliance program.

In conclusion, understanding how control weights are assigned is vital for accurate compliance scoring, as it ensures that the most critical controls are given appropriate emphasis, ultimately leading to a more effective and tailored compliance strategy.

Question No 4:

In Microsoft Purview (formerly known as Microsoft Compliance Center), specific roles are designated to manage compliance, risk, and data-related policies. These roles determine the actions users can perform within the compliance portal. When creating compliance-related policies, such as Data Loss Prevention (DLP), retention, or information protection policies, not all roles possess the necessary permissions.

Which two of the following roles have the authority to create and manage compliance policies in Microsoft Purview?

A. Compliance Manager
B. Compliance Administrator
C. Compliance User
D. Risk Manager

Correct Answers:
B. Compliance Administrator
D. Risk Manager

Explanation:

Microsoft Purview uses role-based access control (RBAC) to manage user permissions and ensure that each individual has the appropriate level of access to carry out their duties. Among the various roles available within Purview, the Compliance Administrator and Risk Manager are specifically authorized to create and manage compliance and risk-related policies.

The Compliance Administrator is a key role with broad privileges in Microsoft Purview. Individuals assigned to this role have comprehensive control over configuring compliance solutions, which includes tasks like setting up Data Loss Prevention (DLP), Retention policies, and Information Governance. These administrators are also responsible for managing alert policies, reviewing content, and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements for data handling.

The Risk Manager role, though more specialized, also plays an essential role in policy creation and management. This role focuses on risk management, particularly around insider risk and communication compliance. Risk Managers can create policies that help identify, investigate, and mitigate risky user behavior or policy violations, contributing to the organization’s overall risk management framework.

On the other hand, the Compliance Manager (Option A) refers more to a toolset rather than a permissioned role. This role is centered around assessing and recommending compliance strategies using the available dashboard. While helpful for analysis, the Compliance Manager does not have the necessary permissions to directly create or configure policies.

Similarly, the Compliance User (Option C) is a limited role, typically used for viewing compliance reports or data. It lacks the permissions required to create or adjust compliance policies.

In conclusion, for organizations that need to create, modify, and manage compliance and risk policies in Microsoft Purview, the Compliance Administrator and Risk Manager roles must be assigned to the appropriate users.

Question No 5:

Which of the following platforms offers access to the “Add to Update Set” utility, which developers can use to manage configuration changes in ServiceNow?

A. ServiceNow Developer Site
B. ServiceNow Store
C. ServiceNow Community
D. ServiceNow HI Support

Correct Answer: B. ServiceNow Store

Explanation:

The “Add to Update Set” utility is an essential tool for ServiceNow developers and administrators, helping them manage configuration changes and customizations in their instances. Update Sets are used to track configuration changes made in a development environment, allowing these changes to be moved to testing or production environments. This utility is useful for including items in the Update Set, especially when they might not be automatically tracked during configuration.

The ServiceNow Store is the designated platform for accessing the “Add to Update Set” utility. As the official distribution platform for ServiceNow, the ServiceNow Store offers a wide array of certified tools, applications, and utilities, including those developed by ServiceNow and third-party vendors. Items available here meet ServiceNow’s security and functionality standards, making it the ideal place for downloading tools like the “Add to Update Set” utility. This ensures that developers use a supported and compatible version of the utility.

In contrast, the ServiceNow Developer Site is primarily focused on providing learning resources, such as training materials, documentation, and hands-on labs. It does not offer downloadable utilities like the “Add to Update Set” tool. The ServiceNow Community is another important platform, but it is intended for knowledge-sharing and discussions among ServiceNow professionals. It does not host tools or utilities for download. Lastly, ServiceNow HI Support provides technical support for issue resolution but is not a platform for distributing utilities.

Therefore, to acquire tools like the “Add to Update Set” utility, the ServiceNow Store is the correct and reliable source for ServiceNow developers.

Question No 6:

When performing a risk assessment in cybersecurity, especially for calculating both Inherent and Residual Risk Scores, which of the following sets of factors are typically used to assess the overall risk exposure of an organization?

A. Impact, Probability, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
B. Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)
C. Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Risk Score
D. Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

Correct Answer: D. Impact, Likelihood, SLE, ARO

Explanation:

In the context of cybersecurity, performing risk assessments is crucial for identifying, evaluating, and mitigating potential threats to an organization’s data and systems. The process typically involves calculating both Inherent Risk (before applying any mitigation controls) and Residual Risk (the remaining risk after controls are in place). To assess these risks, four key metrics are commonly utilized: Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), and Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO).

Impact represents the severity of the damage that could occur if a risk event materializes. This could involve financial loss, reputational damage, or non-compliance with regulations. Likelihood, often referred to as probability, measures the chance of a risk event occurring. It is a critical element in determining both Inherent and Residual Risk.

The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is a quantitative measure that estimates the monetary loss for each occurrence of a risk event. It is calculated by multiplying the asset value by the exposure factor, which represents the percentage of the asset value lost in the event of a risk.

The Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO) refers to how often a specific risk event is expected to occur within a given year. ARO is used to calculate the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE), which provides a projection of the total expected loss from a particular risk event annually.

While the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is derived from the combination of SLE and ARO, it is not typically used directly in the risk score calculation. Instead, Impact, Likelihood, SLE, and ARO are the primary metrics used to evaluate the overall risk exposure.

Therefore, the correct combination for calculating both Inherent and Residual Risk scores is Impact, Likelihood, SLE, and ARO. These factors together help organizations determine their overall risk posture and prioritize their mitigation efforts effectively.

Question No 7:

In an enterprise setting, there is a need to provide users with an intuitive and easy-to-navigate interface where they can access organizational policies, request policy exceptions, and search for specific compliance controls.

Which platform within ServiceNow would be most effective for providing this kind of user experience?

A. Help Desk Portal
B. Catalog Portal
C. Access Portal
D. Service Portal

Correct Answer: D. Service Portal

Explanation:

In the context of a ServiceNow environment, the Service Portal is the most suitable platform for creating a streamlined and user-friendly interface. It enables organizations to design a customizable and responsive front-end interface tailored to specific user needs. This is essential for use cases like viewing policies, requesting exceptions, and searching for compliance measures.

The Service Portal is designed as a versatile and comprehensive platform where users can interact with various ServiceNow modules seamlessly. It offers the flexibility to create custom pages, widgets, and workflows, which do not require deep coding knowledge. This makes it ideal for managing policy-related tasks such as browsing governance guidelines, locating specific compliance controls, and submitting exception requests.

Comparatively, the other options listed are more limited in functionality:

• Help Desk Portal is primarily used for managing IT support tickets and incidents, not for managing compliance-related tasks.

• Catalog Portal is focused on service request management, such as ordering hardware or software, which doesn't align with the requirements of managing policies or compliance controls.

• Access Portal is mainly used for handling access requests and approvals, which is outside the scope of policy management or exception tracking.

By leveraging the Service Portal, organizations can offer an enhanced user experience while improving compliance tracking, reducing manual processes, and increasing operational efficiency. The flexibility and integration of the Service Portal make it the optimal choice for managing policies, controls, and exceptions in a consistent and intuitive way.

Question No 8:

In a compliance management system, control records are often kept in different states, one of which is the "Draft" state. While in this state, only specific roles or individuals can update or modify the control record.

Who is authorized to modify a control record in the Draft state?

A. All compliance users
B. Only the Compliance Manager
C. Only the person assigned the Attestation
D. Only Control Owners

Correct Answer: D. Only Control Owners

Explanation:

In compliance management systems, control records play a crucial role in ensuring that an organization adheres to necessary regulations, policies, and procedures. These controls go through various stages, and the Draft state represents a preliminary phase where the control record can be edited and refined before finalizing and implementing it. It is during this state that permissions for modification are tightly controlled.

The correct answer is that Control Owners are the only individuals authorized to modify the control record while it is in the Draft state. A Control Owner is a designated role responsible for the creation, maintenance, and modification of the control. This ensures that changes to the control are made by someone who has the appropriate knowledge and responsibility to oversee the integrity and accuracy of the control.

Here’s why the other options are incorrect:

• A. All compliance users: Granting modification permissions to all compliance users would open the door to potential mistakes, conflicting changes, and lack of accountability. Therefore, broad access is not typically allowed.

• B. Only the Compliance Manager: The Compliance Manager usually oversees the compliance framework but is not necessarily involved in making direct changes to each control record in the Draft state. Their role is more about ensuring the overall compliance process runs smoothly.

• C. Only the person assigned the Attestation: Attestation is about confirming compliance, not editing or updating control records. The attestation role does not include permission to modify control records, which is typically the responsibility of the Control Owner.

In conclusion, Control Owners are the primary individuals with permission to modify control records in the Draft state. Their role ensures that the necessary expertise and responsibility are applied to the control's creation and refinement. This safeguards the integrity of the organization's compliance management system.

Question No 9:

In which phase can control indicators be triggered or scheduled during the oversight of a system or process?

A. Retired
B. Monitor
C. Review
D. Attest
E. Draft

Correct Answer: B. Monitor

Explanation:

Control indicators are essential tools in managing and monitoring organizational controls. These indicators offer real-time feedback, flagging potential issues related to processes, systems, or control mechanisms. They are designed to automatically activate based on specific conditions, ensuring that any deviation or risk is quickly identified.

The Monitor phase is where control indicators are triggered or scheduled. During this phase, active surveillance of key processes, systems, or control measures is conducted. The primary purpose is to track the performance and functionality of controls continuously. For instance, control indicators may alert an administrator if a performance threshold is exceeded or if there’s an unexpected change in a system’s behavior. When such conditions occur, the control indicator may trigger an automatic action, initiate a review, or even deploy corrective actions.

Let’s examine why other phases are less appropriate:

• Retired: In this state, controls and indicators are no longer in use, and thus no monitoring or triggering of indicators takes place.

• Review: This phase involves assessing or auditing controls, but not the active triggering of indicators. Instead, it is about verifying the effectiveness of controls that are already in place.

• Attest: This phase is focused on validating or confirming the effectiveness of a control, where the role of the control indicator is more about assurance than activation.

• Draft: This phase is the early stage of creating or modifying a control, where indicators might be designed but are not yet operational or triggered.

The Monitor phase is thus the correct answer because it reflects the stage when control indicators are actively engaged, enabling real-time tracking and triggering actions based on predefined conditions. This phase is critical for maintaining ongoing oversight of systems and ensuring controls remain effective.

Question No 10:

Who is responsible for reviewing the risk response and transitioning the risk record into the "Monitor" phase at the appropriate time?

A. Risk Manager
B. Risk User
C. Risk Reader
D. Risk Owner

Correct Answer: D. Risk Owner

Explanation:

In risk management, the Risk Owner plays a vital role in the entire lifecycle of a risk, from identification through to monitoring. The Risk Owner is responsible for overseeing the risk response, ensuring that the response effectively mitigates the risk, and then moving the risk record into the "Monitor" state once the response is implemented.

After the risk response is developed and executed, the Risk Owner evaluates whether the mitigation strategies are working as planned. If the response is deemed effective, the Risk Owner transitions the risk record into the Monitor phase. This indicates that while the risk has been addressed, it is still actively being tracked to ensure that it does not re-emerge or evolve into a new issue. The monitoring phase also allows for any adjustments to be made if new developments occur.

Here’s why the other roles are not as suitable:

• Risk Manager: While the Risk Manager may oversee the overall risk management strategy, the Risk Owner has the responsibility for reviewing specific risk responses and updating the risk record.

• Risk User: This role may interact with or report on risks but does not have the authority or responsibility to move risks through the lifecycle or decide on their status.

• Risk Reader: A Risk Reader only has access to view risk records and data but does not have the authority to modify or transition the status of risks.

The Risk Owner is the individual ultimately accountable for ensuring that risks are appropriately tracked, monitored, and responded to. They are the key decision-makers in determining when a risk should transition to the "Monitor" phase, ensuring that the effectiveness of risk responses is maintained over time.