Isaca CCAK Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
Who is primarily accountable for setting the overall direction for cloud adoption in an organization?
A. Internal audit committee
B. Compliance officer
C. IT department head
D. Executive leadership
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The executive leadership (such as the CEO, CTO, and other C-suite executives) is primarily accountable for setting the overall direction for cloud adoption in an organization. Here's a detailed explanation of the options:
A. Internal audit committee
The internal audit committee focuses on assessing risks, ensuring compliance, and evaluating the effectiveness of internal controls. While they may be involved in auditing cloud adoption or its related controls, they are not responsible for setting the direction for cloud adoption itself.B. Compliance officer
The compliance officer ensures that the organization complies with legal and regulatory requirements. While compliance is important in cloud adoption, the compliance officer is not responsible for setting the strategic direction for cloud adoption. They would, however, advise on compliance aspects once the strategy is set.C. IT department head
The IT department head plays a significant role in cloud adoption, particularly in the technical implementation, architecture, and support. However, the overall direction and strategic decisions, including whether or not to adopt cloud technologies, should be made at the executive leadership level.D. Executive leadership
Executive leadership is responsible for setting the strategic direction of the organization, including decisions about cloud adoption. This group is tasked with aligning the organization’s business goals with IT strategies, such as leveraging cloud technologies. Their vision and leadership ensure that cloud adoption is in line with the organization’s goals.
Thus, D. Executive leadership is the most appropriate answer.
Question 2
What is the most effective and efficient way to assess the security controls managed by a third-party cloud provider when reviewing a SaaS company's security posture?
A. Examine independent audit certifications
B. Analyze the provider’s self-assessment documentation
C. Perform an on-site security audit
D. Distribute a vendor risk assessment questionnaire
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The most effective and efficient way to assess the security controls managed by a third-party cloud provider is to examine independent audit certifications. Here's why:
A. Examine independent audit certifications
Independent audit certifications, such as SOC 2 or ISO 27001, provide a third-party validation of a cloud provider's security posture. These certifications are conducted by external auditors who evaluate whether the provider meets security, privacy, and compliance standards. This method is both efficient (as the certifications are readily available) and effective (providing objective, trusted insights into the provider's security practices).B. Analyze the provider’s self-assessment documentation
While self-assessment documentation may provide useful insights, it is not considered as reliable as independent audits. Self-assessments can be biased or incomplete, as the provider controls the documentation, which limits the ability to get an objective or comprehensive view of their security posture.C. Perform an on-site security audit
Performing an on-site security audit is a thorough and effective way to evaluate security, but it is costly, time-consuming, and impractical for many organizations. This method may be more suited for high-risk vendors or specific use cases where direct verification of security practices is critical.D. Distribute a vendor risk assessment questionnaire
While a vendor risk assessment questionnaire is a useful tool for gathering information, it may not provide an in-depth view of the provider's security controls. Providers can sometimes provide incomplete or inaccurate answers, so it may not be as reliable as independent audits or certifications.
Therefore, A. Examine independent audit certifications is the most effective and efficient way to assess the security controls managed by a third-party cloud provider.
Question 3
Which elements are most critical to evaluate during a public cloud security audit?
A. Software patching, source code inspections, virtualization layer, user access
B. Identity governance and data security
C. Patch management, system setup, virtualization platform, data backups
D. Vulnerability assessments, cybersecurity reviews, and software updates
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A public cloud security audit focuses on ensuring that the security posture of a cloud environment aligns with organizational policies, regulatory requirements, and industry best practices. Among all the possible elements, identity governance and data security stand out as the most critical components in a public cloud environment due to their impact on access control and confidentiality of sensitive data.
Identity governance refers to how user identities are managed, authenticated, and authorized in the cloud. This includes ensuring proper role-based access control (RBAC), multi-factor authentication (MFA), least privilege principles, and monitoring user activities. In public cloud environments, where resources are shared and remotely accessible, improper access controls can lead to data breaches, unauthorized changes, or data exfiltration.
Data security, on the other hand, involves protecting data both at rest and in transit, enforcing encryption standards, ensuring data classification, and implementing backup and recovery procedures. With increasing data privacy laws (such as GDPR, HIPAA, or CCPA), maintaining strong data governance and security measures is a top audit priority.
Let’s examine why the other options are less critical or incomplete:
A (Software patching, source code inspections, virtualization layer, user access): This includes valid operational concerns but source code inspections are generally not part of a public cloud audit unless it’s a proprietary application. The virtualization layer is managed by the cloud provider in most public clouds (IaaS, PaaS), so the customer’s visibility and control over it are limited.
C (Patch management, system setup, virtualization platform, data backups): These are important, but patching and backups are operational-level controls. They support security but do not address governance or access management, which are typically more important in cloud security audits.
D (Vulnerability assessments, cybersecurity reviews, and software updates): While relevant for a technical audit, this answer lacks coverage of core governance elements, such as identity and data control, which are at the heart of compliance and security assessments in the cloud.
Ultimately, public cloud security relies heavily on who has access to what data and how that data is protected, making B the correct answer.
Question 4
To ensure a successful cloud compliance initiative, which key stakeholder should be identified at the beginning of the program?
A. Individuals managing cloud-based processes
B. Internal audit and control teams
C. Legal and regulatory advisors
D. Cloud strategy decision-makers
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
At the beginning of any cloud compliance initiative, the most crucial stakeholder to identify is the cloud strategy decision-maker. This person or group is responsible for aligning cloud usage with overall business goals, risk appetite, and compliance obligations. They have the authority to prioritize efforts, allocate resources, and ensure that compliance initiatives are embedded into the broader cloud governance model.
Cloud compliance touches multiple aspects of an organization, including security, privacy, legal obligations, and risk management. Without strong executive buy-in or strategic leadership, these initiatives often lack direction, authority, or integration across departments. The cloud strategy decision-maker helps set the tone for:
Risk tolerance levels
Data residency and sovereignty decisions
Third-party cloud provider contracts
Policy enforcement mechanisms
Let’s explore why the other options, while important, are secondary at this stage:
A (Individuals managing cloud-based processes): These stakeholders are critical during the execution phase of compliance. However, they do not typically set the direction or objectives of a compliance initiative.
B (Internal audit and control teams): These teams validate whether compliance requirements are met, often serving as assessors rather than strategic drivers.
C (Legal and regulatory advisors): These experts provide essential input on laws and regulations but are not responsible for program leadership or strategic alignment with the cloud transformation goals.
In short, without identifying and involving the cloud strategy decision-makers from the outset, a cloud compliance program may lack focus, fail to meet key business objectives, or struggle with cross-functional coordination. Therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 5
Which action by a cloud service provider requires direct consent from the client?
A. Removing guest or demo accounts
B. Deleting the primary administrative or subscription account
C. Eliminating temporary accounts and sample data
D. Cleaning up test environments and deactivating non-production accounts
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The action that requires direct consent from the client is deleting the primary administrative or subscription account. Here's why:
A. Removing guest or demo accounts
Removing guest or demo accounts is typically not a high-risk or sensitive action that requires client consent, as these accounts are usually non-essential and may be created for temporary purposes. Providers generally have the authority to manage or remove such accounts without client consent.B. Deleting the primary administrative or subscription account
The primary administrative or subscription account is critical for managing the client’s cloud resources and services. Deleting or modifying this account without the client's direct consent can disrupt access to the cloud environment and affect the client’s ability to manage their resources. Therefore, this action requires explicit client consent.C. Eliminating temporary accounts and sample data
Eliminating temporary accounts or sample data is usually part of standard cleanup procedures, particularly when data is no longer necessary for the operation of the cloud environment. It typically does not require the client's direct consent, as it is considered routine maintenance.D. Cleaning up test environments and deactivating non-production accounts
Cleaning up test environments and deactivating non-production accounts are also routine maintenance actions and do not generally require client consent. These are often done to ensure resource optimization and prevent unnecessary costs, and they are typically not linked to critical systems.
Thus, B. Deleting the primary administrative or subscription account is the correct answer because it directly impacts the client’s ability to manage their environment and requires their explicit consent.
Question 6
If a cloud provider disallows the use of automated audit tools, which part of the audit process is most affected?
A. Purpose of the audit
B. Intended audit objectives
C. Nature of the provider-client agreement
D. Boundaries and coverage of the audit
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The boundaries and coverage of the audit are the most affected when automated audit tools are disallowed. Here's a breakdown of the options:
A. Purpose of the audit
The purpose of the audit would not be directly affected by the disallowance of automated audit tools. The purpose typically revolves around assessing compliance, security, and other aspects of the provider's services. While automated tools may help streamline the process, the core purpose remains intact.B. Intended audit objectives
The intended audit objectives also remain unaffected, as they focus on evaluating specific elements such as compliance, security posture, and performance. However, the process of achieving these objectives may become more challenging if automated tools are not allowed.C. Nature of the provider-client agreement
The provider-client agreement outlines the terms under which the audit can be performed, but it is unlikely to be directly impacted by the disallowance of automated tools. The agreement may include stipulations regarding the audit's scope, objectives, and timelines, but the tools used to conduct the audit would not typically alter the core nature of the agreement.D. Boundaries and coverage of the audit
When automated audit tools are disallowed, the boundaries and coverage of the audit are most affected. Automated tools can help auditors scan large datasets quickly, monitor system configurations, and cover a broad range of systems in an efficient manner. Without these tools, auditors may need to rely on manual methods, potentially limiting the scope of the audit and leaving certain areas less thoroughly examined. This could lead to an incomplete or narrower audit coverage, especially in larger or more complex environments.
Therefore, D. Boundaries and coverage of the audit is the correct answer.
Question 7
Which standard is most useful for identifying applicable security controls when migrating IT infrastructure to the cloud?
A. ISO/IEC 27701 – Privacy Information Management
B. ISO/IEC 22301 – Business Continuity
C. ISO/IEC 27002 – General Security Controls
D. ISO/IEC 27017 – Cloud Security Best Practices
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
When migrating IT infrastructure to the cloud, organizations face a distinct set of security challenges and risks that differ from traditional on-premises environments. These include issues such as shared responsibility models, multi-tenancy, data sovereignty, and dynamic provisioning. To address these specific concerns, ISO/IEC 27017 was developed as an extension of the ISO/IEC 27000 family, specifically tailored to cloud computing environments.
ISO/IEC 27017 – Cloud Security Best Practices provides guidance on the implementation of cloud-specific controls. It builds on ISO/IEC 27002 (which outlines general information security controls), but it adds cloud-specific interpretations and additional controls that are particularly relevant in the context of public, private, and hybrid cloud services.
Some key features of ISO/IEC 27017 include:
Clarifying roles and responsibilities under the shared responsibility model between cloud service providers and customers.
Recommending controls for virtual machine configurations, customer data isolation, and administrative operations.
Enhancing accountability and transparency between parties using service-level agreements (SLAs).
Let’s examine the incorrect choices:
A (ISO/IEC 27701 – Privacy Information Management): This standard focuses on data privacy and personal information management, useful for GDPR compliance and other privacy mandates, but not tailored for general cloud security controls.
B (ISO/IEC 22301 – Business Continuity): While important for ensuring service availability and disaster recovery, this standard primarily addresses continuity planning, not cloud-specific security controls.
C (ISO/IEC 27002 – General Security Controls): This is a solid standard for general information security, but it lacks cloud-specific guidelines. ISO/IEC 27017 builds upon 27002 and tailors the controls to the unique nature of cloud computing.
Thus, when evaluating or defining cloud-specific security measures during a migration, ISO/IEC 27017 is the most applicable, making D the correct answer.
Question 8
What is the most suitable method for a company new to cloud technology and unfamiliar with cloud security frameworks to assess its cloud security posture?
A. Leverage recognized security standards or regulations for control mapping
B. Apply on-premises audit standards to cloud systems
C. Depend solely on the provider’s ISO 27001 certification
D. Develop audit benchmarks using internal criteria and audit plans
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
For organizations just beginning their journey into cloud computing—particularly those with limited experience in cloud security frameworks—the best starting point is to leverage established and recognized security standards or regulations for control mapping. These standards offer well-defined, peer-reviewed, and internationally accepted guidance on what constitutes a secure cloud environment.
Frameworks such as:
ISO/IEC 27017 (Cloud-specific controls),
NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls),
CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM),
and compliance regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS (depending on the industry)
allow organizations to compare their current security practices against best-practice benchmarks. This ensures that even cloud newcomers are assessing their security posture against recognized and relevant criteria, not inventing their own benchmarks.
Now, let’s examine why the other options are not suitable:
B (Apply on-premises audit standards to cloud systems): On-premises standards often don’t align with cloud models. Cloud systems introduce unique variables such as multi-tenancy, elastic scaling, and third-party infrastructure control, which aren't adequately covered by legacy audit frameworks.
C (Depend solely on the provider’s ISO 27001 certification): While important, a provider’s ISO 27001 certification only attests to their internal security controls. It doesn’t guarantee security or compliance for the customer, who is still responsible for data classification, user access, and configuration management under the shared responsibility model.
D (Develop audit benchmarks using internal criteria and audit plans): Creating internal standards without referencing industry frameworks is high risk, especially for companies unfamiliar with cloud security. It could result in incomplete or misaligned assessments, leaving gaps in the security posture.
By using recognized security frameworks as a foundation, a company ensures it is adopting comprehensive, scalable, and trusted practices for evaluating and improving its cloud environment. Therefore, A is the most appropriate answer.
Question 9
Which framework is most appropriate for a customer to evaluate the security risk posture of a cloud service provider?
A. SOC 3 – Type 2 report
B. Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix (CCM)
C. SOC 2 – Type 1 audit
D. SOC 1 – Type 1 report
Correct Answer: B. Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix (CCM)
Explanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) is specifically designed for cloud security and helps customers evaluate the security posture of a cloud service provider. It provides a comprehensive set of security controls for assessing the cloud provider’s risk management, security, and compliance practices. It includes a wide array of security, privacy, and compliance controls that are applicable to cloud environments.
A. SOC 3 – Type 2 report: SOC 3 reports are typically less detailed than SOC 2 reports and are more for public distribution, focusing on the effectiveness of controls over time. While useful for public assurance, it's not as specific to security risk evaluation as the CCM.
B. Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix (CCM): The CCM is the most appropriate option here because it is tailored specifically to the cloud environment, providing detailed security controls that customers can use to assess a provider's security posture.
C. SOC 2 – Type 1 audit: SOC 2 Type 1 audits focus on evaluating the design of security and other controls at a point in time but are not as comprehensive for evaluating ongoing security posture or cloud-specific risks as the CCM.
D. SOC 1 – Type 1 report: SOC 1 reports are more focused on financial controls related to the provider’s services and are less useful for evaluating security risk in the context of a cloud service provider.
Question 10
During a cloud security audit, which of the following best helps an organization ensure that both it and the cloud provider clearly understand their respective security responsibilities?
A. Reviewing internal IT policies
B. Evaluating the provider's uptime and performance SLAs
C. Using a shared responsibility model as a reference
D. Conducting penetration testing on the cloud provider’s infrastructure
Correct Answer: C. Using a shared responsibility model as a reference
Explanation:
The shared responsibility model clearly defines the security responsibilities of both the cloud provider and the customer. This model outlines the areas for which the provider is responsible (e.g., physical infrastructure, certain platform security controls) and the areas the customer must manage (e.g., data, user access, application security). Using this model during a security audit helps ensure that both parties understand and agree on their respective security obligations.
A. Reviewing internal IT policies: While reviewing internal policies is important, it does not directly address the understanding of responsibilities between the cloud provider and the customer, which is critical during a cloud security audit.
B. Evaluating the provider's uptime and performance SLAs: Uptime and performance SLAs focus on service availability, not security responsibilities. While important for service reliability, they do not provide clarity on the security responsibilities of the provider and customer.
C. Using a shared responsibility model as a reference: This is the correct answer because the shared responsibility model directly addresses the division of security responsibilities between the provider and the customer, ensuring both parties are clear on their roles.
D. Conducting penetration testing on the cloud provider’s infrastructure: While penetration testing is valuable for security assessment, it does not directly address the division of security responsibilities. It’s also typically done with the provider’s consent, and it may not provide clarity on the shared responsibilities unless aligned with the shared responsibility model.
Thus, C. Using a shared responsibility model as a reference is the best option to ensure both parties understand their respective security responsibilities during a cloud security audit.
