CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
Following the discovery of a cybersecurity vulnerability affecting multiple systems within the organization, clients are reaching out with numerous concerns about the impact and the mitigation strategies in place. To ensure customer service representatives across all communication channels (such as phone, email, and chat) provide accurate and consistent information,
What approach should the organization adopt?
A. Communication Plan
B. Response Playbook
C. Disaster Recovery Procedure
D. Automated Runbook
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A Response Playbook is the most appropriate choice in this scenario, as it provides a structured and pre-approved guide to handling incidents—particularly cybersecurity-related ones—both internally and externally. Its primary value lies in enabling uniform and timely communication during incidents. In situations where customers are anxious about a newly found vulnerability, it’s vital that everyone from the customer service team delivers the same clear, factual information to prevent the spread of misinformation and reduce panic.
The playbook outlines exactly how to respond to various situations, offering pre-drafted messages, escalation paths, and predefined roles. This ensures that customer service representatives don't need to improvise responses, which could lead to errors or miscommunication. It supports both technical teams and non-technical staff in navigating the incident effectively.
Let’s analyze the alternatives:
A Communication Plan is more strategic and overarching. It typically defines communication goals, target audiences, and channels, but it doesn’t provide the step-by-step operational guidance needed for real-time incident handling.
A Disaster Recovery Procedure focuses on restoring systems and operations after a significant failure or outage. While crucial, it doesn’t help guide conversations with clients about active cybersecurity vulnerabilities.
An Automated Runbook is used for executing routine tasks within IT systems, usually in automated environments. While it enhances technical response, it’s not intended for guiding human communication.
In essence, a Response Playbook allows every client-facing employee to speak confidently and consistently, reinforcing trust in the organization’s preparedness and transparency during a cybersecurity incident.
Question No 2:
A software development firm that produces confidential documents containing proprietary content wants to embed proof of ownership into these files. They aim for a method that conceals the ownership marker so it isn’t visible or easily discovered, and they want to avoid using traditional identifiers such as signatures or logos.
What technique should they use to covertly embed ownership information without affecting the document’s appearance or usability?
A. Steganography
B. E-signature
C. Watermarking
D. Cryptography
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Steganography is the ideal solution for embedding covert ownership information within documents. It involves hiding information inside another file (such as text, image, or multimedia content) in such a way that its presence is not detectable by normal means. This technique is not just about encoding information but concealing the fact that there’s anything hidden at all.
For a company looking to protect intellectual property while avoiding visible markers, steganography allows for the insertion of hidden identifiers like serial numbers, ownership metadata, or digital fingerprints directly into the file. The key advantage is that it preserves the original look and function of the document, avoiding any hint of manipulation while still maintaining a secure, trackable mark of authorship or ownership.
Let’s contrast this with the other choices:
An E-signature is typically used for verification and approval, and while it can be encrypted, it remains identifiable and often visible, making it unsuitable for covert purposes.
Watermarking, especially the visible type, is frequently used in documents and media to deter unauthorized use. However, even digital watermarking, which can be hidden, is easier to detect and doesn’t offer the same level of stealth as steganography.
Cryptography transforms data into an unreadable format unless decrypted with a key. While this protects content confidentiality, it doesn’t hide the existence of the data and isn’t suitable for embedding undetectable ownership information.
Thus, for organizations looking to safeguard intellectual property in a non-intrusive and hidden manner, steganography stands out as the most effective and secure technique.
Question No 3:
An organization is working to enhance the efficiency and security of its network traffic by applying dynamic routing policies. These policies are based on factors such as application type, user roles, or data sensitivity. For example, real-time communications like VoIP should use high-priority paths, while large file transfers may be routed through slower connections.
Which technology provides centralized control and intelligent traffic routing based on these types of policies?
A. SDN (Software-Defined Networking)
B. pcap (Packet Capture)
C. vmstat (Virtual Memory Statistics)
D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions)
E. VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Software-Defined Networking (SDN) is the most suitable technology for implementing centralized and policy-driven network traffic routing. SDN separates the control plane, which decides where traffic should go, from the data plane, which handles the actual forwarding of packets. This separation allows administrators to manage and automate traffic flow across the entire network using programmable interfaces.
In the described scenario, SDN enables fine-tuned control over traffic based on high-level policies. For instance, VoIP traffic requiring low latency can be dynamically prioritized, while less time-sensitive data such as backups can be routed through lower-priority paths. SDN’s ability to adapt routing decisions in real-time based on network conditions or application needs makes it ideal for enforcing business and security requirements.
Let’s evaluate the alternatives:
pcap is a tool used for capturing and analyzing network packets. While useful for diagnostics, it doesn’t manage or route traffic.
vmstat provides performance metrics related to memory and CPU but has no influence on network routing decisions.
DNSSEC enhances the security of the Domain Name System by verifying the authenticity of DNS responses, but it doesn't manage or direct traffic flows.
VPC creates isolated environments within a cloud provider’s infrastructure, allowing for security and network segmentation, but it lacks the intelligent, policy-based traffic routing capabilities inherent in SDN.
Therefore, SDN provides the necessary centralized control and flexibility to dynamically manage network behavior based on application-level requirements, making it the most appropriate solution in this context.
Would you like me to continue rephrasing and expanding additional questions in this format?
Question No 4:
Following a successful recovery from a ransomware attack triggered by a spear-phishing campaign—despite a comprehensive employee training program—the organization is now conducting a post-incident review.
To minimize the risk of similar future incidents, which TWO questions should be prioritized during the lessons-learned phase?
A. Are there opportunities for legal recourse against the originators of the spear-phishing campaign?
B. What internal and external stakeholders need to be notified of the breach?
C. Which methods can be implemented to increase speed of offline backup recovery?
D. What measurable user behaviors were exhibited that contributed to the compromise?
E. Which technical controls, if implemented, would provide defense when user training fails?
F. Which user roles are most often targeted by spear phishing attacks?
Correct Answers: D, E
Explanation:
In the aftermath of a cybersecurity breach, especially one involving ransomware through spear-phishing, the lessons-learned phase of the incident response process is vital. It helps organizations extract key insights and improve their future security posture. Although recovery might be complete, a root cause analysis and identification of preventive strategies are necessary to avoid recurrence.
Option D is crucial because it focuses on quantifiable user behaviors that led to the compromise. Even with security awareness training in place, employees might still fall for sophisticated phishing tactics. Identifying how users interacted with phishing emails—such as clicking malicious links or downloading unauthorized attachments—can help tailor future training programs. Behavioral analytics also support the implementation of smarter detection tools that can identify risky actions in real time.
Option E addresses the critical understanding that human error is inevitable, even in trained environments. To mitigate the consequences of such errors, organizations should enhance their technical defenses. Controls such as endpoint detection and response (EDR), advanced spam filtering, sandboxing attachments, URL rewriting, and multi-factor authentication (MFA) provide essential backup layers when human vigilance fails. These technologies can intercept threats before they impact critical systems, even if a phishing attempt bypasses human defenses.
Other options, while relevant to incident response, don’t directly contribute to preventing future incidents:
Option A (legal recourse) may aid accountability but doesn’t stop future phishing.
Option B (stakeholder notification) is compliance-focused, not preventative.
Option C (backup recovery speed) improves recovery time but not threat prevention.
Option F (targeted user roles) may help in risk identification but is less actionable than modifying behavior or implementing controls.
In summary, examining user behavior and strengthening technical safeguards are the most effective ways to reduce the likelihood of future phishing-related ransomware incidents.
Question No 5:
Two companies have recently merged and are looking to enable employees from both organizations to access shared applications without having to log in multiple times.However, due to technical and compliance concerns, they are not ready to combine their internal authentication systems.
Which of the following solutions best supports seamless cross-company access without requiring directory integration?
A. Federation
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)
E. ABAC (Attribute-Based Access Control)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In the context of a corporate merger, one of the most pressing IT concerns is ensuring smooth and secure access to applications and services across both organizations. However, combining internal authentication systems—such as user directories or identity stores—can be technically complex and may raise legal, regulatory, or logistical issues. To address this challenge, Federation is the ideal solution.
Federation allows users in one domain to access applications in another without needing to create separate accounts or log in multiple times. It works by establishing a trust relationship between the two organizations' identity providers (IdPs). The system relies on protocols like SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language), OAuth, or OpenID Connect, which enable secure transmission of authentication assertions across domains.
This approach supports single sign-on (SSO) across organizations. When a user from Company A tries to access a resource hosted by Company B, Company B trusts the identity assertion provided by Company A’s IdP, granting access based on the shared federation policy. This enables collaboration without requiring a complete merger of authentication systems, which can be deferred until a later stage.
Let’s examine why the other options are less suitable:
RADIUS and TACACS+ are legacy protocols primarily used for authenticating access to network infrastructure devices, not application-level access across organizations.
MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) adds a layer of security but does not solve the problem of enabling cross-domain access or avoiding multiple logins.
ABAC (Attribute-Based Access Control) governs access permissions based on attributes like job role or department. While it enhances access control policies, it does not address identity federation between separate systems.
By leveraging Federation, organizations can maintain their separate authentication systems while enabling trusted, seamless access to resources—making it the most effective solution for this scenario during a merger transition.
Question No 6:
A cybersecurity analyst has been assigned to examine a public-facing website for possible exposure of confidential data. The main focus is to extract metadata from various image and document file types (e.g., JPEG, PNG, PDF, DOCX) that may be accessible on the site. The analyst is looking for details like author names, creation timestamps, GPS coordinates, and software information embedded in these files.
Which of the following tools would be the most suitable for efficiently extracting such metadata?
A. OllyDbg
B. ExifTool
C. Volatility
D. Ghidra
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
When the goal is to examine image and document files for embedded metadata that could potentially leak sensitive information, the most appropriate tool for the job is ExifTool. This command-line utility is renowned for its ability to read, write, and manipulate metadata across a wide variety of file formats. It supports numerous metadata standards, including EXIF, IPTC, and XMP, making it ideal for security professionals engaged in digital forensics or OSINT tasks.
ExifTool can process many types of files—including JPEGs, PNGs, PDFs, DOCX files, and more—and extract critical details like creation date, camera model, GPS coordinates, and even the software used to create or modify the file. These data points can be highly revealing in investigations, sometimes exposing information such as a user's physical location or internal business tools. Because ExifTool supports batch processing, it can efficiently scan entire directories of files, which is a major advantage during large-scale audits.
The other options are not suitable for this purpose:
OllyDbg is a debugging tool designed for analyzing executable code at the binary level. It’s used mainly for reverse engineering, not metadata extraction.
Volatility specializes in memory forensics, analyzing RAM dumps to identify active processes and hidden malware—not static file metadata.
Ghidra is a sophisticated reverse engineering platform for disassembling compiled applications. It is useful for binary analysis, not for document or image metadata analysis.
In summary, ExifTool is the best choice for quickly and accurately extracting metadata from various file formats, offering deep insights into potential data exposures without altering the files themselves.
Question No 7:
A global organization has deployed a cloud-based application for hosting virtual events. During peak times—especially at the start of events—thousands of users access the platform simultaneously. The application's landing page displays static sponsor content, which is fetched from a backend database each time a user visits. During a major event, users experience slow load times, and system monitoring reveals the database is under heavy strain due to repeated requests for the same content.
Which of the following strategies would most effectively improve performance and reduce database load during high traffic events?
A. Horizontal scalability
B. Vertical scalability
C. Containerization
D. Static code analysis
E. Caching
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
The problem outlined involves redundant and repetitive retrieval of static content from the database, causing high latency and a poor user experience. The optimal solution for this scenario is caching. Caching stores frequently accessed content—like the static sponsor information—in a fast-access memory layer or edge service, so it doesn’t have to be retrieved from the backend on every request.
This can be implemented using tools such as Redis, Memcached, or CDNs (Content Delivery Networks), which store preloaded or dynamically generated data closer to the user or in-memory. When users access the event entry page, the cached data is served instantly, significantly reducing response time and alleviating database pressure.
Here’s why the other options fall short:
Horizontal scalability (adding more servers) and vertical scalability (enhancing server capacity) can help with overall load handling, but they do not address the inefficiency of querying the same static content repeatedly. These solutions increase capacity rather than reduce load.
Containerization helps with deployment and scalability but does not directly improve runtime performance or reduce database access frequency.
Static code analysis is used during development to identify code quality and security issues, not to enhance real-time system performance.
By implementing a caching solution, the organization ensures faster access to sponsor content, improved reliability during peak usage, and significantly lower demand on backend resources—making it the most efficient and targeted solution to the issue at hand.
Question No 8:
The Board of Directors at a mid-sized company has formally instructed the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to develop a third-party risk management program.
What is the most likely motivation behind this directive?
A. To shift responsibility and liability to vendors
B. To gain transparency and manage risks across the supply chain
C. To guarantee consistent technical support from third-party providers
D. To detect and resolve internal software vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In today’s interconnected business environment, organizations increasingly rely on third-party vendors and service providers to enhance efficiency, reduce operational costs, and scale services. However, this growing dependence introduces new risks—particularly when those external parties have access to sensitive systems or data. Recognizing this, boards of directors are taking a more active role in managing enterprise risk and often mandate the creation of formal third-party risk management (TPRM) programs.
The main driver for such a program is supply chain visibility (B). A well-structured TPRM strategy helps the organization gain comprehensive insight into who its vendors are, what level of access they possess, and whether they meet required security, privacy, and compliance standards. This visibility allows organizations to identify, assess, and mitigate risks stemming from third-party relationships, such as unauthorized data access, data breaches, or regulatory violations.
Other options, while relevant to broader security or operational contexts, do not address the core purpose:
A (Risk transference) relates to tactics like cyber insurance or contractual clauses but doesn’t ensure active risk management or transparency.
C (Technical support) is tied more to service level agreements (SLAs) than strategic risk oversight.
D (Internal vulnerability management) is concerned with in-house systems, not external partners.
Ultimately, the board’s request is driven by the need to ensure that third-party entities do not become overlooked weak points in the company’s cybersecurity and compliance framework.
Question No 9:
A development team is rewriting an old application that previously suffered from a memory-based attack. As part of the fix, they are using the mprotect() system call to block execution from writable memory regions. To ensure this defense is fully effective against code injection and return-oriented programming (ROP) attacks,
Which system-level feature must be activated on the host machine?
A. TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
B. Secure Boot
C. NX bit (No-eXecute bit)
D. HSM (Hardware Security Module)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The NX bit (No-eXecute bit), also known as the XD bit (eXecute Disable) in Intel systems, is a hardware-based memory protection mechanism that prevents execution of code from specific memory regions. This feature is vital in protecting against common exploitation methods such as buffer overflows, code injection, and Return-Oriented Programming (ROP) attacks.
The mprotect() system call allows applications to modify memory permissions at runtime, enforcing rules like making certain memory pages writable but not executable. However, for mprotect() to be effective in real-world scenarios, the underlying system must support and enforce the NX bit. Without it, an attacker could still exploit memory regions that were intended to be non-executable.
Enabling the NX bit ensures a Write XOR Execute (W^X) policy, meaning memory pages can be either writable or executable—but not both. This drastically reduces the attack surface for memory-based exploits.
Other options are unrelated to memory execution protections:
A (TPM) and D (HSM) deal with cryptographic key management and secure storage, not runtime memory behavior.
B (Secure Boot) helps ensure only trusted software runs at system startup, but it does not protect against runtime attacks like buffer overflows or ROP.
Therefore, to support secure runtime behavior and allow mprotect() to provide meaningful protection, the NX bit must be enabled at both the hardware and OS levels.
Question No 10:
Which of the following is a critical component of an effective Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) that ensures a business can continue operations and recover systems effectively after an unexpected disruption?
A. Redundancy
B. Testing and validation exercises
C. Autoscaling infrastructure
D. Locations of market competitors
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A well-rounded Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) outlines how an organization will respond to and recover from major disruptions—such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, or hardware failures—to minimize downtime and maintain business continuity. While having robust technical components in place is important, testing the plan through regular exercises is what determines its actual effectiveness.
Testing exercises are indispensable because they ensure that the plan works as intended and that personnel are familiar with their roles during a crisis. These simulations help uncover gaps, bottlenecks, and outdated assumptions that might otherwise go unnoticed. For instance, a mock ransomware scenario can assess how quickly systems can be restored, how communication flows during an emergency, and whether backups are accessible and reliable.
Other options, though relevant to IT strategy, do not fulfill the same core function:
A (Redundancy) supports high availability but doesn't ensure that recovery procedures are practiced or coordinated.
C (Autoscaling) addresses system performance and demand handling, not disaster response.
D (Competitor locations) is not relevant to internal disaster recovery planning.
In short, a DRP without regular and thorough testing is just theory. By actively simulating disaster scenarios, organizations ensure that their people, processes, and technologies are resilient and ready for real-world emergencies.
