Cisco 350-201 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
Which two of the following are key functions of a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system in a Security Operations Center (SOC)? (Choose 2.)
A. Aggregating logs and monitoring security events across the network
B. Blocking malicious traffic before it reaches the network perimeter
C. Correlating data from multiple sources to detect potential security incidents
D. Managing firewalls and antivirus software across the network
E. Automating the patch management process
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system plays a crucial role in a Security Operations Center (SOC) by helping to aggregate, analyze, and correlate security-related data from multiple sources. This is essential for identifying and responding to security incidents in a timely manner. The two key functions of a SIEM system include:
Option A, aggregating logs and monitoring security events across the network, is a core function of a SIEM system. It collects log data from a variety of sources, such as network devices, security tools, applications, and servers. By centralizing log management, the SIEM system makes it easier for security analysts to monitor and review security events across the network in real time.
Option C, correlating data from multiple sources to detect potential security incidents, is another primary function of a SIEM. By analyzing data from different network devices, applications, and security tools, the SIEM can identify patterns or anomalies that may indicate a security threat. Event correlation helps in the detection of incidents that might not be obvious from a single data source alone. For example, a SIEM might correlate failed login attempts across multiple systems to detect a potential brute-force attack.
While option B, blocking malicious traffic before it reaches the network perimeter, and option D, managing firewalls and antivirus software, are important security functions, they are typically handled by firewall systems, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), and endpoint protection tools, not a SIEM system. The role of a SIEM system is to provide visibility, correlation, and alerting of security events, not to actively block malicious traffic or manage firewalls.
Option E, automating the patch management process, is a vital security task but is not a function typically associated with SIEM systems. Patch management is usually handled by IT management tools or vulnerability management systems rather than a SIEM system.
In summary, the SIEM system's main functions are focused on log aggregation, event monitoring (A) and data correlation to detect incidents (C), allowing security teams to analyze and respond to security threats effectively.
Question 2
Which two of the following are examples of common network monitoring tools used in a SOC? (Choose 2.)
A. Wireshark
B. SolarWinds
C. Cisco Umbrella
D. Nessus
E. Splunk
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
In a Security Operations Center (SOC), network monitoring tools are essential for identifying and responding to network security incidents. These tools provide visibility into network traffic, performance, and potential security threats. The most commonly used network monitoring tools in a SOC include:
Option A, Wireshark, is one of the most widely used packet capture and analysis tools in network monitoring. It allows analysts to inspect network traffic in real-time and analyze network packets at a granular level. Wireshark is extremely useful for identifying anomalies, troubleshooting issues, and investigating security incidents like data exfiltration or malware communication.
Option B, SolarWinds, is a comprehensive network monitoring and management platform that provides detailed insights into the performance, health, and security of network devices. It helps in tracking bandwidth usage, device status, and network performance, which can alert SOC teams to potential issues before they escalate. SolarWinds is particularly known for its network performance monitoring and alerting capabilities.
While Option C, Cisco Umbrella, is a cloud-based security solution that provides DNS-layer security and web filtering, it is more focused on web traffic filtering and malware prevention than on monitoring network traffic within the SOC. It is not typically considered a network monitoring tool in the traditional sense.
Option D, Nessus, is a vulnerability scanning tool used to identify weaknesses in network systems, servers, and applications. While Nessus is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities, it does not focus on real-time network monitoring or traffic analysis, which is the primary role of tools like Wireshark and SolarWinds.
Option E, Splunk, is a powerful log analysis and SIEM tool that can also be used for network monitoring when integrated with network devices. It is excellent for correlating logs, monitoring security events, and alerting on incidents, but it does not directly perform network traffic analysis in the same way that Wireshark or SolarWinds does.
In conclusion, the best tools for network monitoring in a SOC from the provided options are Wireshark (A) for packet-level analysis and SolarWinds (B) for performance monitoring and alerting.
Question 3
Which two of the following are types of malware that may be detected in a network environment? (Choose 2.)
A. Ransomware
B. SQL Injection
C. Phishing
D. Rootkits
E. Brute Force Attacks
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Malware refers to malicious software specifically designed to cause harm to systems or networks. Certain types of malware are commonly detected within a network environment, and understanding these types helps in creating effective detection and mitigation strategies.
Option A, ransomware, is a type of malware that typically encrypts the victim’s files or locks them out of their systems until a ransom is paid. It is often delivered through malicious email attachments or compromised websites. Ransomware can cause significant disruption, so detection systems are specifically designed to detect its behavior, such as file encryption or network communication to external command and control servers.
Option D, rootkits, are a type of malware that is designed to gain unauthorized root-level access to a system and hide its presence from normal detection mechanisms. They are particularly insidious because they can modify the operating system to avoid detection. Rootkits can be very difficult to remove, making them a priority for advanced malware detection systems.
On the other hand:
Option B, SQL Injection, is not considered malware; it is a technique used by attackers to exploit vulnerabilities in web applications by injecting malicious SQL code into a query. It is an attack vector rather than a type of malware. Though it can lead to a breach, it’s a type of attack, not malicious software.
Option C, phishing, involves attempting to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information like usernames, passwords, or credit card numbers. Phishing attacks are typically carried out through social engineering and email deception rather than the use of malware.
Option E, brute force attacks, refer to attempts to gain unauthorized access to accounts by trying numerous password combinations until the correct one is found. While it’s an attack technique, it doesn’t involve malware but rather a method of cracking passwords.
In summary, ransomware (A) and rootkits (D) are both types of malware that can be detected through appropriate security mechanisms within a network environment.
Question 4
Which two techniques can be used to detect unauthorized access in a network environment? (Choose 2.)
A. Implementing anomaly-based detection to identify unusual behavior patterns
B. Disabling all external access to network devices
C. Using signature-based IDS/IPS systems to identify known threats
D. Using data loss prevention (DLP) tools to block unauthorized data transfers
E. Setting up honeypots to trap attackers and monitor their activities
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
Detecting unauthorized access within a network is critical for preventing security breaches and minimizing damage. There are several techniques that can be used to identify unauthorized access or suspicious activity in a network environment.
Option A, implementing anomaly-based detection to identify unusual behavior patterns, is a technique used by intrusion detection systems (IDS) or intrusion prevention systems (IPS). Anomaly-based detection works by establishing a baseline of normal network behavior and then identifying deviations from this baseline. Unusual behavior such as unusual login times, unusual data transfers, or changes in user behavior patterns can be flagged as potentially unauthorized access attempts. This method is effective at detecting previously unknown threats, including insider threats.
Option E, setting up honeypots to trap attackers and monitor their activities, is a method where a decoy system or network is set up to lure attackers. These systems mimic vulnerable targets, and when attackers interact with them, it allows security professionals to monitor their techniques, behavior, and tools. Honeypots can provide valuable information about how unauthorized access attempts are carried out, and can also help detect malware or exploits being used in attacks.
In contrast:
Option B, disabling all external access to network devices, is not a practical or effective method for detecting unauthorized access. While it could prevent unauthorized access, it would severely limit legitimate access as well, making it impractical for most organizations.
Option C, using signature-based IDS/IPS systems to identify known threats, is a common technique for detecting known threats based on predefined signatures. While effective for detecting known attacks, signature-based detection may not identify new, unknown threats or attacks that do not match existing signatures.
Option D, using data loss prevention (DLP) tools to block unauthorized data transfers, is a useful technique for preventing data exfiltration rather than detecting unauthorized access. DLP tools monitor and control the flow of sensitive data within and outside of the organization, but they are not typically used to detect unauthorized access attempts to systems.
In conclusion, anomaly-based detection (A) and honeypots (E) are effective techniques for detecting unauthorized access and suspicious activity within a network environment.
Question 5
Which two of the following actions are critical when handling an active security incident in a SOC? (Choose 2.)
A. Identifying the attack vector and source of the incident
B. Implementing a comprehensive risk assessment for the entire network
C. Containing the incident to prevent further damage
D. Immediately notifying the media to inform the public
E. Eradicating the malware and restoring affected systems
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
When handling an active security incident in a Security Operations Center (SOC), it is essential to take immediate and effective steps to minimize damage and prevent the issue from escalating further. The following actions are critical in such a scenario:
Option A, identifying the attack vector and source of the incident, is a crucial first step in understanding how the attack entered the network. Identifying the attack vector (such as a phishing email, web vulnerability, or exploit) helps SOC analysts trace the origin of the attack and understand its scope. Knowing the attack vector allows for targeted responses to mitigate further damage and patch any vulnerabilities.
Option C, containing the incident to prevent further damage, is a key step in the incident response process. Once an attack is identified, it is important to contain the incident as quickly as possible. This could involve actions such as isolating affected systems, shutting down compromised accounts, or blocking malicious traffic to prevent further spread of the attack. Containment helps to minimize the overall impact and allows for subsequent actions like eradication and recovery.
On the other hand:
Option B, implementing a comprehensive risk assessment for the entire network, is not something that should be done immediately during an active incident. A risk assessment is typically performed during pre-incident planning or after the incident has been contained to understand the overall impact. While important, it is not a critical action during the actual containment phase.
Option D, immediately notifying the media to inform the public, is not a critical action during the active handling of a security incident. Public notification should be managed carefully, in coordination with public relations and legal teams, and typically occurs after the immediate response steps are taken. Prematurely informing the public may exacerbate the situation or cause unnecessary panic.
Option E, eradicating the malware and restoring affected systems, is certainly important but comes after containment. Once the incident is contained, steps like malware removal and system restoration can take place. Immediate eradication might not always be feasible during the early stages of the response, as further investigation is necessary to understand the full impact.
In conclusion, the critical actions during an active security incident are identifying the attack vector and source (A) and containing the incident to prevent further damage (C).
Question 6
Which two of the following are common indicators of compromise (IoC) that can be used to identify a security breach? (Choose 2.)
A. Unusual outbound network traffic
B. Standard network performance without anomalies
C. Increased system resource usage
D. Detection of new user accounts being created without approval
E. Normal login times and frequency
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are signs or patterns that suggest a security breach or malicious activity has occurred within a network or system. IoCs are critical for identifying and responding to attacks early on. Some of the most common IoCs include:
Option A, unusual outbound network traffic, is a common IoC. If there is a sudden spike in outbound traffic or unusual patterns in traffic leaving the network, it may indicate data exfiltration or communication with external command and control servers used by malware. This type of activity is typically outside the norm and can be flagged as suspicious for investigation.
Option C, increased system resource usage, can also indicate a security breach. Malware or unauthorized processes can cause systems to consume more CPU, memory, or disk space than normal. High resource usage is often linked to malicious activities such as mining cryptocurrency, running botnets, or other unauthorized operations within a compromised system.
On the other hand:
Option B, standard network performance without anomalies, is not an indicator of compromise. In fact, this represents normal operations, which makes it the opposite of an IoC. For detecting breaches, you need to look for anomalies, not the absence of them.
Option D, detection of new user accounts being created without approval, is an important IoC but is typically a sign of insider threats or compromise of an account with administrative privileges. While it is a critical sign of potential compromise, it is not necessarily related to all types of breaches. It’s common, but not as universal across all security incidents as the other IoCs mentioned.
Option E, normal login times and frequency, would typically not indicate any malicious activity. Abnormal login patterns (such as logins at unusual times or from unexpected locations) are what should be considered as potential IoCs, so normal patterns don't serve as a red flag for compromise.
In summary, unusual outbound network traffic (A) and increased system resource usage (C) are key indicators of compromise that can help identify a security breach.
Question 7
Which two of the following are benefits of using a network intrusion detection system (IDS)? (Choose 2.)
A. IDS can automatically block malicious traffic
B. IDS can log and alert on suspicious network activity
C. IDS helps in encrypting sensitive data in transit
D. IDS can help detect and respond to zero-day exploits
E. IDS can be used to block unauthorized users in a network
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
A Network Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a security tool used to monitor network traffic and detect suspicious or malicious activity. The primary role of an IDS is to provide visibility into network activity and alert administrators about potential security incidents.
Option B, IDS can log and alert on suspicious network activity, is one of the primary benefits of an IDS. It continuously monitors network traffic and logs events related to suspicious activities. When suspicious activity is detected, the IDS generates alerts to notify the security team, allowing them to investigate and take appropriate action. This enables real-time detection of potential threats and provides an audit trail for incident response.
Option D, IDS can help detect and respond to zero-day exploits, is also a key benefit. Zero-day exploits are vulnerabilities that are unknown to the software vendor and are typically not detected by traditional security tools. While an IDS may not prevent the exploit from happening, it can still identify suspicious behavior that could indicate a zero-day attack. For example, unusual network traffic patterns, exploits targeting known vulnerabilities, or abnormal communication with external servers can all be detected by an IDS, helping security teams respond quickly.
On the other hand:
Option A, IDS can automatically block malicious traffic, is incorrect because an IDS, by design, does not block traffic. It detects and alerts on potential threats but does not actively block malicious traffic. An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) would be required to block traffic based on detected threats.
Option C, IDS helps in encrypting sensitive data in transit, is incorrect because encryption is not a primary function of an IDS. Encryption is typically handled by tools such as VPNs, TLS/SSL, or specific encryption protocols, not by an IDS.
Option E, IDS can be used to block unauthorized users in a network, is also incorrect. While an IDS can detect unauthorized activity, it does not have the ability to block users directly. Blocking unauthorized users typically falls under the responsibility of firewalls or access control systems.
In conclusion, the benefits of an IDS include logging and alerting on suspicious network activity (B) and detecting and responding to zero-day exploits (D).
Question 8
Which two of the following tools or techniques are used to analyze and mitigate DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attacks? (Choose 2.)
A. Using a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to filter malicious traffic
B. Deploying traffic filtering and rate limiting techniques on network devices
C. Implementing encrypted tunnels for all inbound traffic
D. Disabling all incoming traffic to the network during an attack
E. Using DNS filtering to block malicious IP addresses
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks aim to overwhelm a target server, service, or network with excessive traffic, rendering it unavailable. There are several methods and tools that can be used to analyze and mitigate the impact of DDoS attacks.
Option A, using a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to filter malicious traffic, is a common technique to mitigate DDoS attacks, especially application-layer DDoS attacks. A WAF sits between the user and the web server, filtering out malicious requests such as excessive requests from bots or malicious scripts. It can help block suspicious traffic before it reaches the server, effectively preventing an overload of traffic that could otherwise disrupt the service.
Option B, deploying traffic filtering and rate limiting techniques on network devices, is another effective method. Traffic filtering can be used to block certain types of traffic or limit the rate at which traffic is allowed to pass through the network. This prevents the target network or server from being overwhelmed by malicious requests. Rate limiting can be used to control the volume of traffic allowed from a particular IP or connection, reducing the impact of DDoS attacks by restricting the number of requests that can be made in a short period.
On the other hand:
Option C, implementing encrypted tunnels for all inbound traffic, is not directly related to mitigating DDoS attacks. While encryption helps secure traffic, it does not prevent the high volume of requests characteristic of DDoS attacks. Encrypting all inbound traffic can even add extra overhead and may not be effective against DDoS traffic.
Option D, disabling all incoming traffic to the network during an attack, is not an ideal response to a DDoS attack. Blocking all traffic would prevent legitimate users from accessing the network or service, which is not a sustainable or acceptable solution. Instead, targeted mitigation techniques should be employed to block malicious traffic while allowing legitimate traffic.
Option E, using DNS filtering to block malicious IP addresses, can help in certain situations, particularly for DDoS attacks that originate from known malicious IP addresses or botnets. DNS filtering can prevent traffic from specific IP addresses from reaching the network, but it is typically not as effective in mitigating large-scale, distributed attacks where malicious IPs are constantly changing.
In conclusion, effective techniques for mitigating DDoS attacks include using a Web Application Firewall (WAF) (A) and deploying traffic filtering and rate limiting techniques (B).
Question 9
Which two of the following techniques are typically used in endpoint detection and response (EDR) systems to detect threats on endpoints? (Choose 2.)
A. Continuous monitoring of endpoint activity for suspicious behavior
B. Scanning emails for known malicious attachments
C. Using heuristics and behavioral analysis to identify anomalies
D. Deploying firewalls directly on all endpoints
E. Filtering and blocking IP addresses based on reputation scores
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) systems are designed to monitor and respond to threats that target endpoints (such as workstations, laptops, or servers). EDR tools typically utilize a variety of techniques to detect, investigate, and respond to malicious activity.
Option A, continuous monitoring of endpoint activity for suspicious behavior, is a core feature of most EDR systems. These systems constantly monitor endpoint activity to detect potential signs of malicious behavior, such as unauthorized processes, unusual file modifications, or abnormal network connections. Continuous monitoring allows for the early detection of threats, even those that may evade traditional signature-based security solutions.
Option C, using heuristics and behavioral analysis to identify anomalies, is another critical technique used by EDR systems. Rather than relying solely on known threat signatures, EDR systems use heuristics and behavioral analysis to detect deviations from normal system behavior. This helps identify threats that may not yet have a known signature, such as zero-day exploits or advanced persistent threats (APT) that exhibit abnormal actions on the system, like unusual CPU usage or unrecognized processes.
On the other hand:
Option B, scanning emails for known malicious attachments, is more characteristic of email security or secure email gateways rather than EDR systems. While EDR may eventually respond to an attack originating from email, the email scanning itself is typically not handled by an EDR system.
Option D, deploying firewalls directly on all endpoints, is not a primary function of EDR systems. Firewalls are generally responsible for controlling network traffic rather than detecting threats within the endpoint itself. While endpoint firewalls can be useful, they are not the core focus of EDR systems, which are more concerned with local system behavior and application-level activities.
Option E, filtering and blocking IP addresses based on reputation scores, is a technique used in network-based security systems like firewalls or intrusion prevention systems (IPS), but not typically in EDR. EDR focuses on endpoint-level activities, and while it can interact with network security systems, it does not generally handle IP blocking directly.
In conclusion, the two key techniques used in EDR systems are continuous monitoring of endpoint activity (A) and using heuristics and behavioral analysis to identify anomalies (C).
Question 10
Which two of the following are primary goals of a security operations center (SOC)? (Choose 2.)
A. Identifying and responding to security incidents in real time
B. Creating long-term strategies for employee training on cybersecurity
C. Continuously monitoring and analyzing network traffic for potential threats
D. Performing detailed vulnerability assessments on all company devices
E. Conducting proactive penetration testing to identify vulnerabilities
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
A Security Operations Center (SOC) is a centralized unit that is responsible for monitoring and defending an organization’s IT infrastructure from cyber threats. The primary functions of a SOC involve continuous monitoring, detection, response, and mitigation of security incidents. The main goals are to ensure the organization’s security posture remains strong and that potential threats are detected and addressed in real time.
Option A, identifying and responding to security incidents in real time, is one of the core goals of a SOC. A SOC’s primary responsibility is to detect security incidents as soon as they occur and respond quickly to mitigate damage. This involves monitoring network traffic, analyzing security alerts, and taking immediate action when threats are identified. Real-time detection and response are essential for minimizing the impact of security breaches.
Option C, continuously monitoring and analyzing network traffic for potential threats, is another primary function of a SOC. To detect potential security incidents, a SOC must monitor network traffic, log files, endpoint activity, and other data sources to look for signs of suspicious or malicious behavior. This continuous monitoring helps identify anomalies that might indicate security threats, including malware, unauthorized access, or other malicious activities.
On the other hand:
Option B, creating long-term strategies for employee training on cybersecurity, while important for an organization’s overall security awareness, is generally outside the primary scope of a SOC. A SOC focuses more on real-time security operations, whereas employee training is typically handled by HR or a security awareness program.
Option D, performing detailed vulnerability assessments on all company devices, is an important security practice, but it is typically part of a vulnerability management program rather than a direct responsibility of the SOC. A SOC may use vulnerability assessments to help prioritize threats, but it is not directly responsible for performing these assessments on all devices.
Option E, conducting proactive penetration testing to identify vulnerabilities, is generally the role of a red team or a penetration testing team within an organization, not the SOC. The SOC’s main role is to respond to and mitigate threats in real time, while penetration testing focuses on proactively identifying potential vulnerabilities before they can be exploited.
In conclusion, the primary goals of a SOC include identifying and responding to security incidents in real time (A) and continuously monitoring and analyzing network traffic for potential threats (C).
