ECCouncil 312-38 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
Which component serves as the central point of communication for wireless-enabled devices, facilitating their connection to a network using technologies such as Wi-Fi or Bluetooth?
A. ExpressCard
B. Wireless Access Point (WAP)
C. Wireless Network Interface Card (WNIC)
D. Wireless Repeater
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B. Wireless Access Point (WAP)
Explanation:
A Wireless Access Point (WAP) is a crucial networking device that acts as a centralized hub for wireless devices to connect to a wired network. It operates by transmitting radio frequency signals that are compatible with standards such as IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi), enabling devices like laptops, smartphones, tablets, and IoT gadgets to communicate with the broader network infrastructure. In essence, a WAP functions like a digital gateway between wireless clients and a wired LAN, routing data to and from the network backbone.
WAPs are often integrated into wireless routers in residential environments, but in enterprise or commercial settings, they may exist as standalone devices managed by a central controller. High-performance WAPs can support features like multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO), dual-band operation, and advanced encryption protocols (e.g., WPA2, WPA3) for security.
It's important to differentiate a WAP from related devices:
A Wireless Network Interface Card (WNIC) allows a device to connect wirelessly but relies on a WAP to access the network.
A Wireless Repeater merely extends an existing signal’s range; it doesn’t serve as the primary access hub.
An ExpressCard is a peripheral interface, typically used for expansion purposes in laptops, and is not involved in network communication.
Thus, the WAP is the central point of wireless communication, forming the foundation of modern Wi-Fi connectivity in virtually all environments.
Question No 2:
Which protocol establishes a control channel using TCP and utilizes a GRE tunnel to encapsulate PPP frames for VPN communication?
A. PPTP
B. ESP
C. LWAPP
D. SSTP
Correct Answer: A. PPTP
Explanation:
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is one of the earliest VPN protocols developed to secure remote access over the internet. It enables users to connect to private networks through an encrypted tunnel, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity. PPTP works by creating a control channel over TCP (port 1723) to manage the VPN connection setup, maintenance, and termination. Simultaneously, it uses Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) to encapsulate and transmit PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) frames, which contain the actual user data.
The use of GRE allows PPTP to encapsulate a wide variety of Layer 3 protocols, making it flexible in transporting data packets over IP networks. PPP provides features like authentication (via PAP or CHAP), encryption, and compression. This combination allows PPTP to function as a lightweight yet reasonably secure solution, especially in legacy systems or older Microsoft-based networks.
While it offers ease of configuration and speed, PPTP is now considered less secure compared to modern VPN protocols like L2TP/IPsec or OpenVPN, due to vulnerabilities in its encryption model. Nevertheless, it remains important in understanding the evolution of VPN technologies.
Other options—ESP, LWAPP, and SSTP—serve different purposes and do not use the specific combination of TCP control and GRE encapsulation that characterizes PPTP.
Question No 3:
Which of the following procedures is specifically designed to assist security personnel in identifying, responding to, and recovering from malicious cyber incidents such as data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, or unauthorized access?
A. Cyber Incident Response Plan
B. Crisis Communication Plan
C. Disaster Recovery Plan
D. Occupant Emergency Plan
Correct Answer: A. Cyber Incident Response Plan
Explanation:
A Cyber Incident Response Plan (CIRP) is a formalized, systematic approach tailored to help organizations effectively detect, contain, and mitigate the impact of cyber-related incidents. Unlike broader emergency management frameworks, a CIRP focuses solely on cybersecurity threats—including malware infections, phishing attacks, insider threats, system intrusions, and data breaches.
This plan outlines the specific roles and responsibilities of incident response team members, ensures regulatory compliance (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA), and defines how digital forensics and evidence preservation should be handled. It also sets communication protocols for internal stakeholders, legal teams, and external entities such as law enforcement or cybersecurity vendors.
The CIRP is designed to minimize financial loss, operational downtime, reputational damage, and potential legal consequences resulting from security breaches. Modern organizations often simulate cyberattack scenarios through tabletop exercises or penetration tests to validate and refine their response plans.
Each phase of a CIRP—Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery, and Post-Incident Review—helps build a resilient security posture. Post-incident reviews are especially valuable, as they enable organizations to conduct a root cause analysis, identify gaps, and implement improvements, reducing the likelihood of future compromises.
In contrast:
B. Crisis Communication Plan is designed for managing public and stakeholder communications during crises but does not focus on technical threat response.
C. Disaster Recovery Plan addresses broader recovery of IT services after events like natural disasters or infrastructure failures, not cyber-specific events.
D. Occupant Emergency Plan is focused on physical safety procedures, such as evacuation protocols during fires or earthquakes, and is unrelated to cybersecurity.
Thus, only the Cyber Incident Response Plan provides the technical, procedural, and strategic structure required to manage and recover from malicious digital threats.
Question No 4:
In Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which command is used to allocate a receiving buffer for a specified connection?
A. Send
B. Close
C. None
D. Receive
E. Interrupt
Correct Answer: D. Receive
Explanation:
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a connection-oriented protocol within the Internet Protocol Suite that ensures reliable, ordered delivery of data between applications on different devices. A TCP connection involves two ends: a sender and a receiver, each of which uses buffers to manage the data being transferred.
Buffers are essential in TCP communications because they temporarily store data before it’s processed by the application. The Receive command is specifically responsible for managing the receiving buffer. When data is sent from the sender, the receiver allocates space in its buffer using the Receive command. The buffer holds incoming data until the application is ready to process it. This allocation ensures that data can be handled at the rate the application is capable of processing, preventing data loss when there is a mismatch between the sender’s data transmission rate and the receiver’s ability to process that data.
Efficient buffer management is crucial in TCP connections. If the receiving buffer is not properly allocated, incoming data may overflow, causing packet loss or delays. Proper flow control mechanisms are implemented to ensure that the receiver has sufficient buffer space for all incoming data, thus maintaining the integrity of the data transfer process.
The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
A. Send: This command is used by the sender to transmit data. It’s not involved in the allocation of receiving buffers. Its purpose is to initiate the transmission of data to the receiver over the TCP connection.
B. Close: The Close command is used to gracefully terminate a TCP connection between two devices. It ensures that resources associated with the connection, such as buffers and socket handles, are properly released. However, it has no role in buffer allocation during data transfer.
C. None: This option is incorrect because Receive is the specific command responsible for allocating the receiving buffer in a TCP connection. The term “None” does not apply in this context since there is a clearly defined action for buffer management.
E. Interrupt: An Interrupt is typically a hardware or low-level operating system signal that alerts the system to handle an event, such as the completion of a data transfer or an error condition. It is unrelated to TCP’s function of buffer allocation.
In summary, the Receive command in TCP is directly responsible for allocating the buffer that stores incoming data on the receiver’s side. Without this buffer, incoming packets would have nowhere to be temporarily stored, leading to potential data loss or processing delays. This buffer is a critical component in ensuring the efficiency and reliability of data transfer in TCP connections, as it enables the receiver to manage and process data at a steady pace without losing any packets during transmission.
By allocating a receiving buffer through the Receive command, TCP maintains proper flow control and minimizes the risk of data congestion or loss, which is vital for smooth, reliable communication over the network.
Question No 5:
You are a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator at DataEnet Inc., investigating an employee suspected of misconduct. It is believed the employee is using web-based email services (such as Hotmail or Yahoo) for improper communication. Your task is to examine the local computer to uncover any evidence related to their email activity.
Given that the employee uses an online email service, which of the following folders on the local machine are most likely to contain relevant forensic data?
A. History Folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Cookies Folder
D. Download Folder
Correct Answers:
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Cookies Folder
D. Download Folder
Explanation:
In forensic investigations involving webmail (online email services), certain system folders are crucial for uncovering evidence that might indicate the employee’s activities. Let’s break down the relevance of each folder:
B. Temporary Internet Folder
The Temporary Internet Folder is a key location for storing cached content from websites, including email services. When an employee accesses their webmail account, various elements of the page such as email previews, attachments, and HTML files are temporarily saved to this folder for faster loading and offline access. The content in this folder can be examined to uncover emails that were read, attachments that were downloaded, or even drafts of emails that were written but not yet sent. The presence of cached files, including images and HTML fragments of email communications, can provide direct evidence of email activity on the webmail platform.
C. Cookies Folder
The Cookies Folder stores small pieces of data that websites save on a user's computer to remember preferences, session data, or login credentials. In the context of webmail, cookies can store critical forensic evidence, such as login tokens and session information. By analyzing cookies, investigators can determine which webmail services the employee accessed, the dates and times of those accesses, and potentially identify the specific accounts they logged into. This folder can offer valuable insight into the webmail services used and the scope of the employee’s online communication activities, including login times and the websites they visited.
D. Download Folder
The Download Folder is where files, including email attachments, are typically stored when the employee downloads them from their webmail account. Any files, such as documents, spreadsheets, or images, that were attached to emails could be in this folder. These files may hold sensitive or incriminating data. For example, downloaded attachments can contain unauthorized information, confidential documents, or other data relevant to the investigation. Therefore, analyzing the Download Folder is critical, as it can provide direct evidence of material the employee interacted with through their webmail account.
A. History Folder (Incorrect)
The History Folder stores a record of websites that have been visited by the employee, typically organized by date and time. While this can show that a webmail site was accessed, it provides little detailed content-level insight. The history will show that a webmail platform (such as Hotmail or Yahoo) was visited, but it won't reveal the actual emails sent or received or provide data on attachments or specific communications. As a result, while the History Folder can be helpful for showing website access patterns, it is less informative for a deep forensic investigation compared to the other folders listed.
In the context of investigating an employee's use of web-based email services, B. Temporary Internet Folder, C. Cookies Folder, and D. Download Folder are the most critical for uncovering relevant evidence. The Temporary Internet Folder holds cached content related to webmail interactions, the Cookies Folder can reveal session and login data, and the Download Folder may contain attachments directly tied to email communications. The History Folder, while useful for showing which websites were visited, does not provide the level of detail necessary to effectively investigate the employee's email activity. Therefore, focusing on the first three folders will yield the most pertinent forensic evidence for this investigation.
Question No 6:
Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for ensuring data integrity by guaranteeing that messages are delivered in the correct order, without loss or duplication?
A. Transport layer
B. Link layer
C. Internet layer
D. Application layer
Correct Answer: A. Transport layer
Explanation:
The Transport layer is the fourth layer in the TCP/IP model and is primarily responsible for reliable end-to-end communication between devices. It ensures data integrity through several key mechanisms:
Sequencing:
Ensures data packets arrive in the correct order. Even if packets take different paths, the Transport layer reorders them before delivery.Error Checking and Recovery:
Uses checksums to detect errors. If corruption or loss occurs, the Transport layer handles retransmission of missing data.Acknowledgments:
Protocols like TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) require the receiver to send acknowledgments. If an acknowledgment isn’t received, data is resent.Flow Control:
Prevents network congestion and ensures data is sent at a manageable pace for the receiving system.
By contrast:
B. Link layer handles physical transmission of data between adjacent network nodes.
C. Internet layer deals with addressing and routing but not data integrity.
D. Application layer interacts with user-facing software but does not manage delivery reliability.
The Transport layer is the only layer responsible for ensuring that data arrives accurately, in the correct order, and without loss or duplication—making A the correct answer.
Question No 7:
In the past, which of the following technologies was most commonly used to interconnect Local Area Networks (LANs) and transport intermittent data over Wide Area Networks (WANs) in a cost-effective manner?
A. PPP
B. Frame Relay
C. ISDN
D. X.25
Correct Answer: B. Frame Relay
Explanation:
Frame Relay was widely adopted in the past for cost-effective interconnection of LANs and transport of intermittent data over WANs. It was particularly popular because it used virtual circuits that allowed multiple endpoints to share bandwidth, thus reducing the overall cost for organizations needing wide-area connectivity. Frame Relay also enabled bursting traffic, which is useful for sending data intermittently, a key characteristic of many business applications at the time.
Here's why Frame Relay is the correct answer, and why the other options are less applicable:
B. Frame Relay (Correct Answer)
Frame Relay was designed to support data transmission over wide-area networks (WANs) with cost-efficiency and simplicity. It uses virtual circuits to connect different devices over the WAN, allowing the sharing of bandwidth. This makes it particularly effective for intermittent traffic and bursty data transfers, such as the data exchanges typical between LANs. Frame Relay was ideal for businesses needing to establish non-dedicated connections, which would allow flexibility in handling varying levels of network traffic without requiring permanent or dedicated communication paths. Additionally, the relatively low cost of Frame Relay made it a preferred solution for organizations that needed to interconnect geographically dispersed LANs.
A. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)
PPP is a data link protocol primarily used for direct connections between two devices over point-to-point links, such as dial-up connections or direct connections between a computer and a remote network. While PPP can be used in WANs, it is not designed for cost-effective interconnection of multiple LANs. It is more often used for establishing direct, dedicated links, not shared connections with bursty traffic like Frame Relay.
C. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network)
ISDN was designed for voice and data transmission over digital networks and was used in certain WAN applications, particularly for smaller-scale or lower-bandwidth needs. While ISDN can provide data transfer capabilities, it was typically more expensive than Frame Relay, especially for transmitting intermittent or bursty data. ISDN is also not as scalable or flexible as Frame Relay, making it less suitable for interconnecting multiple LANs or handling large-scale network traffic.
D. X.25
X.25 is an older packet-switched network protocol that was designed to support wide-area communication in the 1970s and 1980s. While it was once popular, its relatively high latency and complexity made it less suited for cost-effective interconnection of LANs. Frame Relay eventually replaced X.25 for many of the same use cases, offering faster and more efficient transmission of bursty data with less overhead.
Frame Relay was the most widely used technology for interconnecting LANs and transporting intermittent data over WANs in a cost-effective manner, thanks to its virtual circuits, shared bandwidth, and ability to handle bursty traffic. PPP, ISDN, and X.25 serve different needs, and while they were used in some specific scenarios, they are either outdated or less optimal than Frame Relay for this use case. Thus, Frame Relay remains the correct choice for this scenario.
Question No 8:
Which of the following policies is specifically designed to enforce guidelines related to password complexity, expiration, reuse restrictions, and integration with multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
A. Information Protection Policy
B. Remote Access Policy
C. Group Policy
D. Password Policy
Correct Answer: D. Password Policy
Explanation:
A Password Policy is the most relevant policy when it comes to enforcing strict guidelines related to password creation, expiration, reuse, and integration with other security measures like multi-factor authentication (MFA). This policy ensures that users follow the security standards needed to protect accounts from unauthorized access.
Let's differentiate the options:
Information Protection Policy: This policy focuses more on safeguarding sensitive data, like encrypting information or controlling access to confidential files. While passwords play a role in protecting data, this policy does not specifically address password rules or enforcement.
Remote Access Policy: This policy governs how users can securely access company resources from outside the organization (e.g., VPN access, remote desktop). While this may involve secure authentication methods, it doesn't focus specifically on the rules for password management.
Group Policy: Group Policy is a broader Windows-based administrative tool used to enforce a variety of system settings, including but not limited to password settings. It is not a specific "policy" in itself, but rather a mechanism that can be used to apply policies across many system configurations, including password policies.
The Password Policy is the dedicated policy to manage password requirements, including complexity, expiration, reuse limits, and integrations with MFA. Other policies like Information Protection or Remote Access are broader in scope and don't address password specifics in the same way.
Question No 9:
Which of the following best defines the role of a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) in network security architecture?
A. A secure area that stores sensitive internal data away from internet-facing services
B. A subnet that provides external services while isolating internal networks from public access
C. A firewall that provides packet filtering and port blocking
D. A VPN tunnel that secures internal traffic through encryption
Correct Answer: B. A subnet that provides external services while isolating internal networks from public access
Explanation:
A Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a critical concept in network security architecture. It refers to a perimeter network or subnet that sits between an organization’s internal network and an external network, typically the internet. The primary goal of a DMZ is to expose external-facing services such as web servers, email servers, FTP servers, and DNS servers while preventing unauthorized access to the internal corporate network.
By placing these services in the DMZ, organizations create an additional layer of security. If an attacker compromises a system in the DMZ, they still face significant hurdles before accessing the internal network. Firewalls and Access Control Lists (ACLs) are often used to strictly regulate traffic between the DMZ and both external and internal networks.
The DMZ architecture supports defense-in-depth by enforcing a separation of roles:
The public-facing services are placed in a zone where users on the internet can interact with them.
The internal, sensitive network is kept isolated and protected by further firewall rules.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A: This defines an internal secured network, not a DMZ.
C: A firewall is a tool used within the DMZ configuration but not equivalent to the DMZ itself.
D: A VPN secures internal communication but is unrelated to the concept of a DMZ.
The DMZ provides controlled exposure to the internet and minimizes risk by isolating critical internal systems.
Question No 10:
Which of the following is the most appropriate technique for detecting and stopping a SYN flood attack on a network?
A. Enable port security on all switch interfaces
B. Use a stateless firewall to block all incoming SYN packets
C. Implement TCP SYN cookies on the server
D. Increase the TTL value for all incoming packets
Correct Answer: C. Implement TCP SYN cookies on the server
Explanation:
A SYN flood is a type of Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack in which the attacker sends a rapid succession of TCP SYN (synchronize) packets to a target system in an attempt to overwhelm it and render it unresponsive. These half-open connections exhaust server resources.
To counter this attack, one effective mitigation is the use of TCP SYN cookies. This method modifies how the server handles incoming SYN packets:
When a SYN packet is received, instead of allocating resources for a connection, the server encodes critical connection information into the TCP sequence number.
It then sends a SYN-ACK without creating a session state.
Only when the ACK (the third part of the handshake) is received, proving the client is legitimate, will the server establish the connection.
This drastically reduces the risk of memory exhaustion and is specifically designed to prevent SYN flood attacks.
Why the other answers are incorrect:
A: Port security is helpful in controlling MAC addresses on switch ports but is ineffective against SYN floods.
B: Blocking all SYN packets would disable legitimate TCP connections, crippling network functionality.
D: Increasing the Time-To-Live (TTL) value is unrelated to preventing SYN floods and does not impact TCP handshake protection.
Using TCP SYN cookies is a smart, resource-efficient way to defend against this type of network-layer attack.
