Cisco 300-725 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A cybersecurity professional is assessing various malware detection mechanisms available on the Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA). Cisco integrates multiple scanning solutions, such as traditional antivirus engines and Cisco AMP (Advanced Malware Protection). The engineer wants to understand the enhanced capabilities AMP brings beyond basic scanning.

Which two notable advantages does Cisco AMP offer in comparison to standard antivirus engines within the WSA? (Select two)

A. Defense against malicious software
B. Detection and prevention of zero-day threats
C. Blocking unsolicited email messages
D. Identification of virus infections
E. Defense against advanced, targeted file-based threats

Correct answers: B and E

Explanation:

Cisco AMP (Advanced Malware Protection) is a more advanced solution compared to traditional antivirus engines. While both solutions serve to detect and mitigate malicious software, AMP provides additional enhanced capabilities that go beyond the basic detection offered by standard antivirus engines.

Let’s break down each of the options:

A. Defense against malicious software
This option is not unique to AMP. Both traditional antivirus engines and AMP provide defense against malicious software, so this is a general feature of antivirus solutions, not a distinguishing feature of AMP over standard antivirus engines.

B. Detection and prevention of zero-day threats
This is correct. Zero-day threats refer to previously unknown vulnerabilities or exploits that are not yet discovered or patched by security vendors. Cisco AMP is designed to detect and prevent zero-day threats by leveraging advanced threat intelligence, behavioral analysis, and machine learning. It provides a level of dynamic detection that allows it to identify suspicious activities even before they are formally classified, which standard antivirus engines may not be able to detect until they are formally recognized.

C. Blocking unsolicited email messages
This option is incorrect. Blocking unsolicited email messages is a task typically handled by email filtering solutions (such as spam filters) rather than a malware detection engine like AMP. While AMP focuses on file-based threats, email filtering tools specialize in identifying and blocking spam and phishing messages.

D. Identification of virus infections
This option is incorrect as a distinguishing feature of AMP. Traditional antivirus engines also detect virus infections using signature-based detection and other methods. Cisco AMP does provide virus detection, but it focuses more on advanced malware detection and threat intelligence, offering deeper protection against evolving threats. This is a standard feature found in both AMP and traditional antivirus solutions, though AMP provides more advanced capabilities in this area.

E. Defense against advanced, targeted file-based threats
This is correct. Advanced, targeted file-based threats, such as spear-phishing attachments or malware payloads, are a key area of focus for Cisco AMP. AMP uses advanced behavioral analysis, file reputation, and cloud-based intelligence to identify and block sophisticated, targeted attacks that would likely bypass traditional antivirus engines. AMP’s ability to identify malicious behavior and track files across endpoints makes it more effective at defending against these types of threats.

Cisco AMP enhances malware detection capabilities beyond traditional antivirus engines by focusing on advanced threat prevention, such as detecting zero-day threats and defending against advanced, targeted file-based threats. Therefore, the correct answers are B and E.

Question 2:

While analyzing system logs on a Cisco device, a network technician encounters output from a command that displays the most recent entries of a log file. This type of output is typically used for live troubleshooting or monitoring.

Which CLI command most likely produced this output?

A. grep command
B. logconfig utility
C. rollovernow command
D. tail command

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

When working with system logs on a Cisco device, the goal is often to review the most recent log entries to identify issues or events that might be causing problems. In this scenario, the technician is looking for the most recent entries in the log, which is typically used for live troubleshooting.

Let's evaluate the options:

A. grep command
The grep command is used to search for specific patterns within a file. While grep can help filter logs based on criteria, it does not specifically show the most recent log entries. Instead, it allows you to search for specific keywords or patterns within the log files, making it less likely to be the command producing the output described in the question.

B. logconfig utility
The logconfig utility is used to configure logging settings on Cisco devices, such as setting up the log destination or specifying logging levels. It is not used to display the most recent log entries. While it plays a role in managing log configuration, it does not directly display logs themselves.

C. rollovernow command
The rollovernow command is used to force the log file rollover, which creates a new log file and archives the current one. While this command might be used to manage log files, it does not display the most recent entries from a log file. It is more about managing the log file system.

D. tail command
The tail command is used to display the most recent lines of a file, and it is commonly used for live monitoring and troubleshooting in many operating systems, including Cisco devices. By default, tail shows the last few lines of a file (such as a log file), which makes it ideal for viewing the most recent entries in the log. It is the most likely command that would produce the output described in the scenario.

The command that displays the most recent entries of a log file, commonly used for live troubleshooting or monitoring, is the tail command. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 3:

A security analyst is creating a report using Cisco Advanced Web Security Reporting (AWSR) to determine which domains users have accessed. This report will be used for compliance auditing and threat detection. The analyst must select the correct data category that reflects domain names visited.

Which AWSR data category should be used to compile a list of domains accessed by users?

A. URL classification types
B. Web reputation ratings
C. Websites accessed
D. Application traffic visibility

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

In the scenario described, the analyst needs to compile a report that lists the domains accessed by users. To accomplish this, the analyst needs to choose the appropriate data category from AWSR, which will allow for tracking the visited domain names.

Let's review each option:

A. URL classification types
The URL classification types category is typically used to classify URLs based on their content (e.g., business, entertainment, social media, etc.) or category (e.g., malware, phishing). This classification helps filter and monitor web traffic based on the nature of the URL. However, it does not provide a direct listing of which domains users have accessed, making it unsuitable for the task at hand.

B. Web reputation ratings
The Web reputation ratings category assesses the reputation of a domain or URL, which is based on factors like malicious activity or known threats. While this is useful for threat detection and monitoring, it does not specifically track or report on the domains users have visited. Therefore, this category is also not ideal for compiling a list of accessed domains.

C. Websites accessed
The Websites accessed category is the most appropriate choice for compiling a list of domains that users have visited. This category provides data on actual websites accessed by users, making it ideal for generating a report that lists the domains for auditing and compliance purposes. The analyst will be able to see which domains were visited, which is the primary goal in this case.

D. Application traffic visibility
The Application traffic visibility category relates to visibility into the applications used by users, rather than specific websites or domains. This category is more focused on application-level traffic, such as social media apps, video streaming, or messaging services, rather than domain-level web traffic. While this might be useful for other aspects of network monitoring, it is not suitable for compiling a list of domains accessed.

The best category to compile a list of domains accessed by users for the purpose of compliance auditing and threat detection is Websites accessed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 4:

A security engineer is configuring the Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) to communicate securely with an AMP file reputation server located in a private cloud. To ensure integrity and encryption of this interaction, the engineer must upload the proper cryptographic material to the WSA.

Which cryptographic element must be installed on the WSA to authenticate and encrypt communication with the private AMP server?

A. Server’s private encryption key
B. A decryption private key for incoming data
C. The AMP server’s public and private keys
D. The AMP server’s public encryption key

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

In this scenario, the security engineer is configuring secure communication between the Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) and an AMP (Advanced Malware Protection) file reputation server, which involves encryption and authentication.

To ensure the secure exchange of data, public key encryption is typically employed. Here's an analysis of each option:

A. Server’s private encryption key
The private key is used for decryption on the server side, and it is kept secret. The private key is never shared or uploaded to the WSA. Instead, the private key is used by the server to decrypt data that was encrypted with its corresponding public key. Therefore, the WSA does not need the private key for encryption or authentication purposes.

B. A decryption private key for incoming data
The private key is used for decryption purposes but is generally not installed on the WSA for the AMP server communication. The private key would be installed only on the AMP server, not the WSA. The WSA would typically encrypt the data using the server's public key and not the private key for decryption.

C. The AMP server’s public and private keys
The public key is used to encrypt data before sending it to the server, while the private key is used by the server for decryption. The private key is kept secret by the server and should not be uploaded to the WSA. The WSA only needs the AMP server’s public key to encrypt outgoing data, so the private key is not needed.

D. The AMP server’s public encryption key
To establish a secure communication channel, the WSA needs the public key of the AMP server. This public key allows the WSA to encrypt data that can only be decrypted by the AMP server using its private key. The public key is used for encryption, ensuring that only the AMP server (which holds the corresponding private key) can decrypt the communication. Therefore, this is the correct cryptographic element to upload to the WSA to facilitate secure communication with the private AMP server.

To authenticate and encrypt communication with the private AMP file reputation server, the WSA needs to use the AMP server’s public encryption key. This key allows the WSA to securely encrypt the data before transmitting it to the AMP server. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Question 5:

A network admin is preparing to perform the initial setup of a Cisco security device. To begin configuration, the admin must connect to the system setup wizard through the device’s default network address and port combination.

What is the factory-default IP address and port used to access the setup wizard via a web browser?

A. http://192.168.42.42:80
B. https://192.168.42.42:8080
C. https://192.168.42.10:8443
D. http://192.168.43.42:8080

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

When performing the initial configuration of a Cisco security device, the system setup wizard is typically accessed via a web browser using the device's factory-default IP address and port number. Here's a breakdown of the available options:

A. http://192.168.42.42:80
This IP address and port combination could be a valid option, but it does not align with the default configuration for most Cisco security devices. Typically, Cisco security devices such as firewalls or web appliances use HTTPS (secure HTTP) to ensure secure communication during the setup process. Additionally, port 80 is commonly used for non-secure HTTP traffic, which is not typically the default for the initial configuration of Cisco security devices.

B. https://192.168.42.42:8080
This is the correct answer. Cisco devices like the Cisco ASA or Cisco Firepower often use HTTPS (port 443) or an alternate secure port such as 8080 for initial setup, to ensure a secure connection while configuring the device. 192.168.42.42 is also a common default IP address used for many Cisco devices during the initial setup phase.

C. https://192.168.42.10:8443
While HTTPS (port 443 or 8443) is used for secure communication, 192.168.42.10 is not typically the factory-default IP address for most Cisco security devices. Furthermore, port 8443 is not usually the default for device setup wizards in most Cisco devices.

D. http://192.168.43.42:8080
This IP address is different from the usual factory-default IP address used by Cisco devices. Additionally, the combination of HTTP and port 8080 is less commonly used for initial configuration compared to HTTPS.

The correct factory-default IP address and port combination used to access the Cisco security device’s setup wizard is https://192.168.42.42:8080. This combination ensures that the configuration is secure and aligns with the common defaults for Cisco security devices. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Question 6:

To optimize how user web traffic is routed, a network administrator is using a Proxy Auto-Config (PAC) file as part of the Cisco WSA deployment. The goal is to dynamically direct traffic through the proper proxy server based on various conditions.

What is the main purpose of a PAC file in a WSA-based deployment?

A. It provides instructions for redirecting browser traffic through a proxy server
B. It’s essential for redirecting traffic in transparent proxy setups
C. It dictates access policies by URL category
D. It’s mandatory for forwarding traffic in explicit proxy configurations

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

A Proxy Auto-Config (PAC) file is used in environments where web traffic needs to be dynamically routed to different proxy servers based on specific criteria, such as the URL being accessed or the IP address of the client. In the context of the Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA), the PAC file plays a significant role in determining the routing of web traffic. Here's an explanation of each answer option:

A. It provides instructions for redirecting browser traffic through a proxy server
This is the correct answer. A PAC file contains JavaScript code that tells the browser how to determine which proxy server to use for a given request. It uses logic based on conditions such as URL patterns or network addresses. For example, if a certain domain is accessed, the PAC file can direct traffic through one proxy, while traffic for other domains can go through a different proxy or bypass the proxy altogether.

B. It’s essential for redirecting traffic in transparent proxy setups
This is incorrect. In a transparent proxy setup, the proxy intercepts traffic without requiring any changes to the client's configuration. PAC files are not necessary in this type of setup, as the device automatically routes traffic through the proxy without needing explicit instructions from the client’s browser. The PAC file is more relevant in explicit proxy configurations, where the client needs to be aware of and configure the proxy.

C. It dictates access policies by URL category
This is incorrect. While PAC files can help route traffic based on URLs, they do not dictate access policies. Access policies by URL category are typically enforced by other mechanisms in the WSA, such as URL filtering or categorization policies, not by the PAC file.

D. It’s mandatory for forwarding traffic in explicit proxy configurations
This is incorrect. While a PAC file is commonly used in explicit proxy configurations, it is not mandatory. Some explicit proxy configurations can be set up with other methods, such as manually configuring clients to point to a specific proxy server. The PAC file provides a more dynamic and flexible way to configure explicit proxy settings.

The main purpose of a PAC file in a WSA-based deployment is to provide instructions for redirecting browser traffic through a proxy server, based on specific criteria such as the URL or client address. It allows for dynamic, flexible routing of web traffic. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question 7:

When deploying a Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA), a network administrator must determine the operational modes available for filtering, monitoring, and controlling web traffic.

Which two operational modes are available on the Cisco WSA for directing user web traffic? (Choose two)

A. Connector mode
B. Proxy mode
C. Transparent deployment
D. Standard mode
E. Explicit mode

Correct answers: C, E

Explanation:

The Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) can operate in different modes to route and filter user web traffic. These modes define how the appliance interacts with web traffic and how it is deployed in the network infrastructure. Below is an explanation of each answer choice:

A. Connector mode
This is incorrect. There is no "connector mode" in the Cisco WSA. The WSA typically uses operational modes such as explicit and transparent to manage traffic. Connector mode does not exist as a recognized deployment mode for the WSA.

B. Proxy mode
This is incorrect. While proxy functionality is a key feature of the WSA, "Proxy mode" as a standalone operational mode is not a specific term used for Cisco WSA deployment. The WSA can be deployed in explicit mode (where proxy settings are configured on client devices) or transparent mode (where the proxy functions without client configuration), but "proxy mode" by itself is not a recognized term.

C. Transparent deployment
This is correct. Transparent deployment means that the Cisco WSA intercepts and processes web traffic without the need for client configuration. In this mode, traffic is redirected automatically (usually through network configuration such as a redirect on the router or switch), and the clients do not need to know that a proxy is being used. This mode is especially useful when deploying web filtering without requiring user configuration on client machines.

D. Standard mode
This is incorrect. There is no "Standard mode" specifically defined for the Cisco WSA. The two main modes for directing web traffic are explicit and transparent, and "standard" is not a category for WSA deployment.

E. Explicit mode
This is correct. Explicit mode involves configuring client devices to explicitly direct their traffic through the WSA using proxy settings (either through browser settings or a PAC file). This mode provides more granular control, as each client can be individually configured to route its traffic through the proxy server for filtering, monitoring, and policy enforcement.

The two operational modes available on the Cisco WSA for directing user web traffic are transparent deployment and explicit mode. In transparent mode, the WSA intercepts traffic without requiring changes to the client, while in explicit mode, client devices are configured to use the proxy for web traffic. Therefore, the correct answers are C and E.

Question 8:

A network administrator reviews WSA logs to verify whether certain user requests were blocked due to policy violations. They observe specific status codes in the access logs.

Which status code pair confirms that a web request was denied due to an active policy rule?

A. TCP_DENIED/407
B. TCP_DENIED/401
C. TCP_DENIED/403
D. TCP_DENIED/307

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When reviewing logs from a Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) to determine whether a request was denied due to a policy rule, the status codes are essential in identifying how and why the request was blocked. Here's an explanation of each answer choice:

A. TCP_DENIED/407
This is incorrect. The 407 status code indicates that a proxy authentication required error occurred. This typically happens when the client needs to authenticate with the proxy before the request can proceed. While this might indicate an issue with user authentication, it does not necessarily confirm that the request was blocked due to a policy violation.

B. TCP_DENIED/401
This is incorrect. The 401 status code represents unauthorized access, which is related to authentication issues. This could happen if the client has not provided the correct credentials, but it doesn't specifically confirm that the web request was blocked due to a policy violation.

C. TCP_DENIED/403
This is correct. The 403 status code represents forbidden access, meaning that the user is authenticated but does not have the appropriate permissions to access the requested resource. This typically happens when the request is blocked due to a policy rule on the WSA, such as a filtering policy or a security policy violation. The TCP_DENIED part of the log entry indicates that the request was explicitly denied by the proxy, and the 403 status code confirms that the denial was due to access restrictions based on the policy.

D. TCP_DENIED/307
This is incorrect. The 307 status code represents a temporary redirect. It indicates that the requested resource has temporarily moved to a different URL. This is typically not used to indicate a policy violation or denial due to security rules, so it doesn't confirm a block due to policy violations.

The TCP_DENIED/403 status code pair is the correct one to confirm that a web request was denied due to an active policy rule. The 403 status indicates that access is forbidden, and the TCP_DENIED portion of the log entry shows that the denial came from the WSA, likely due to a policy rule. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 9:

To reduce the risk of sensitive data leaks, a security administrator is configuring Cisco WSA features aimed at stopping outbound data transfer over protocols like HTTP and FTP. The administrator explores native features and integration options that can support Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies.

Which two WSA capabilities are designed to prevent data exfiltration via HTTP or FTP? (Choose two)

A. Reputation-based URL filtering
B. Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
C. Integration with external DLP tools
D. Data protection and leakage filters
E. SOCKS protocol proxying

Correct answers: C, D

Explanation:

In a Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) deployment, preventing data exfiltration is a critical task, especially when dealing with protocols like HTTP and FTP. Let's break down each option:

A. Reputation-based URL filtering
This is incorrect. Reputation-based URL filtering is useful for blocking access to known malicious or low-reputation sites, but it is not specifically designed to prevent data exfiltration. It helps control access based on the reputation of the website, but does not directly control the outbound transfer of sensitive data via HTTP or FTP.

B. Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
This is incorrect. While AMP provides excellent protection against malware by analyzing files for threats, it does not directly address data exfiltration via HTTP or FTP. AMP focuses more on preventing the spread of malware and identifying threats rather than blocking data leakage itself.

C. Integration with external DLP tools
This is correct. Integration with external Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tools is a key capability for preventing data exfiltration. DLP tools can analyze the content being transferred over HTTP, FTP, or other protocols and enforce policies to block the transmission of sensitive data. This integration allows for detailed inspection and enforcement of DLP policies to stop data leaks.

D. Data protection and leakage filters
This is correct. Data protection and leakage filters in the Cisco WSA are specifically designed to prevent sensitive data from being transmitted out of the network. These filters can be configured to detect and block the transfer of sensitive information over HTTP, FTP, and other protocols, ensuring that sensitive data does not leave the organization without authorization.

E. SOCKS protocol proxying
This is incorrect. SOCKS protocol proxying is typically used to allow client applications to connect to external servers through a proxy, often bypassing traditional HTTP/HTTPS filtering. While SOCKS proxies can be used in certain network configurations, they do not inherently provide protection against data exfiltration via HTTP or FTP. It is a method of traffic routing rather than a security feature to prevent data leaks.

To prevent data exfiltration over HTTP or FTP, the integration with external DLP tools (C) and data protection and leakage filters (D) are the most effective features. These capabilities allow the Cisco WSA to enforce strict data loss prevention policies and block sensitive data from being transferred out of the network. Therefore, the correct answers are C and D.

Question 10:

A network engineer is setting up Kerberos authentication on Cisco WSA to work with Active Directory. As part of the configuration, an AD realm must be defined correctly within the appliance.

Which configuration mode must the WSA be set to in order to support Kerberos authentication through an Active Directory realm?

A. Forwarding mode
B. Connector mode
C. Transparent mode
D. Standard mode

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

In this scenario, the WSA (Web Security Appliance) is being configured to use Kerberos authentication with Active Directory. Kerberos authentication relies on the ability of the Cisco WSA to interact with the Active Directory realm and authenticate users based on their credentials.

Now, let’s analyze the options:

A. Forwarding mode
This is incorrect. Forwarding mode is typically used when the WSA is deployed as a proxy between clients and the destination servers, but it does not support the specific integration required for Kerberos authentication with Active Directory. This mode is more focused on redirecting traffic and doesn't facilitate the user authentication process that is required in this case.

B. Connector mode
This is incorrect. Connector mode is used for simpler integrations, typically with cloud services, and it doesn’t directly facilitate Active Directory integration for Kerberos authentication. It’s often used for easier deployment where more granular control over authentication (like Kerberos) is not needed.

C. Transparent mode
This is incorrect. Transparent mode allows the WSA to intercept web traffic without the need for explicit client-side configuration, but it doesn’t handle the specific requirements for Active Directory Kerberos authentication. It typically focuses on monitoring and filtering traffic but does not provide the user-authentication integration needed for Kerberos with Active Directory.

D. Standard mode
This is correct. Standard mode is the mode that fully supports Kerberos authentication through an Active Directory realm. In this mode, the WSA can integrate with Active Directory to authenticate users via Kerberos, and it allows for the necessary configuration of the AD realm. In Standard mode, the WSA can handle detailed authentication processes, including Kerberos-based authentication, to ensure users are authenticated correctly before accessing web resources.

To support Kerberos authentication with Active Directory, the WSA must be set to Standard mode (D). This mode provides the necessary framework for configuring and using Kerberos authentication in conjunction with Active Directory realms.