Cisco 200-301 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question No 1:
Which two statements correctly describe key characteristics of a three-tier network design? (Choose two.)
A. The distribution layer supports both Layer 2 switching and Layer 3 routing functions.
B. The core layer ensures consistent network connectivity during device failures.
C. The access layer manages inter-VLAN routing between separate broadcast domains.
D. The core layer connects directly to end-user devices for high-speed access.
E. The core and distribution layers perform identical roles in traffic management.
Correct Answers: A, B
Explanation:
The three-tier network architecture is a modular design used in enterprise networks, consisting of the access, distribution, and core layers. Each layer has a unique purpose:
Access Layer: This is where end-user devices (like desktops and printers) connect to the network. It handles Layer 2 switching, basic security (like port security), and may offer limited Layer 3 functions in smaller environments. However, it typically doesn’t handle inter-VLAN routing on larger networks. That’s why option C is incorrect.
Distribution Layer: This middle layer links the access and core layers. It is responsible for routing between VLANs, policy enforcement, packet filtering, and broadcast domain control. It handles both Layer 2 and Layer 3 operations, making option A correct.
Core Layer: This top tier is designed for high-speed, high-availability traffic forwarding. It connects multiple distribution layers and ensures fast and reliable data delivery across the network. Its role is not to connect end-user devices directly but to maintain network stability and fault tolerance, which makes option B correct, and option D incorrect.
Option E is incorrect because the core and distribution layers serve distinct purposes—the core focuses on speed and redundancy, while the distribution layer handles routing and access control.
This structured approach ensures better scalability, redundancy, and manageability for large enterprise networks.
Question No 2:
In IPv6 addressing, which address type is directly comparable to an IPv4 public IP address in that it is globally routable on the Internet?
A. Multicast
B. Unique Local
C. Link-Local
D. Global Unicast
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
IPv6 introduces several address types, each with a specific scope and use case, mirroring some of the functions found in IPv4 but on a much larger scale.
Global Unicast (Option D): These addresses are equivalent to IPv4 public addresses. They are globally unique and routable over the Internet, assigned by IANA or regional registrars. Their prefix typically begins with 2000::/3, and they are used for direct communication between devices across the globe. This is the correct answer.
Multicast (Option A): Used for one-to-many communication, multicast addresses allow a single packet to reach multiple destinations. While useful, they are not used for regular one-to-one Internet communication like public addresses.
Unique Local (Option B): These are the IPv6 equivalent of private IPv4 addresses (e.g., 192.168.x.x or 10.x.x.x). They are meant for internal use within an organization and not routable on the Internet.
Link-Local (Option C): Automatically generated, these addresses are used for local communication between nodes on the same link (LAN segment). They cannot be routed beyond the local link.
In summary, Global Unicast addresses in IPv6 function like public IPv4 addresses—they are routable across the global Internet, unique, and intended for external communication.
Question No 3:
When forming an IPv6 address using the EUI-64 method, what change is made to the MAC address to create the interface identifier?
A. A randomly generated 64-bit value replaces the MAC address.
B. The MAC address is simply prefixed with FE80 to create a valid address.
C. The 7th bit (Universal/Local bit) in the MAC address is flipped to define address scope.
D. The MAC address is used directly, without modification, in the interface identifier.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier) format is a method used in IPv6 to automatically generate a 64-bit interface identifier from a device’s 48-bit MAC address. Here's how the transformation works:
The 48-bit MAC address is split into two halves.
The hexadecimal value FFFE is inserted in the middle, creating a 64-bit value.
The 7th bit of the first byte (the Universal/Local bit) is flipped—this indicates whether the address is universally or locally administered.
This bit flip is key:
If the MAC address begins with a byte like 00 (binary 00000000), the 7th bit is 0. Flipping it results in 00000010, which is 02 in hex.
This alteration signals that the interface identifier is not simply a manufacturer-assigned MAC address but one derived by the system using EUI-64.
Let’s look at the incorrect answers:
Option A: No random value is used in EUI-64. It's derived deterministically from the MAC address.
Option B: While link-local addresses may start with FE80, that’s part of the network prefix, not the transformation process itself.
Option D: The MAC address is modified; it’s not used as-is.
Thus, Option C is correct because flipping the U/L bit is a required and defining part of the EUI-64 address creation process in IPv6.
Question No 4:
A company operates across four floors in a corporate building, with the following number of employees on each floor:
Floor 1: 24 users
Floor 2: 29 users
Floor 3: 28 users
Floor 4: 22 users
The organization plans to assign a dedicated subnet to each floor while also ensuring efficient use of IP addresses and minimizing waste.
Which of the following subnetting strategies offers the most optimal solution, combining efficient summarization for router configuration with adequate subnet sizes for each floor?
A. Use 192.168.0.0/24 as the summary and assign 192.168.0.0/28 subnets per floor
B. Use 192.168.0.0/23 as the summary and assign 192.168.0.0/25 subnets per floor
C. Use 192.168.0.0/25 as the summary and assign 192.168.0.0/27 subnets per floor
D. Use 192.168.0.0/26 as the summary and assign 192.168.0.0/29 subnets per floor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
To design an IP addressing scheme that is both efficient and scalable, the goal is to assign each floor its own subnet large enough to support all users without wasting addresses. Let’s begin by calculating the minimum number of usable IPs each floor needs:
Floor 1: 24 users
Floor 2: 29 users
Floor 3: 28 users
Floor 4: 22 users
When subnetting, remember that each subnet reserves 2 IPs (network and broadcast), so the usable host addresses per subnet is calculated as:
Usable IPs = 2^n - 2
Step 1: Choosing the Right Subnet Size for Each Floor
To accommodate up to 29 users (the largest floor), we need at least 30 usable IP addresses.
A /27 subnet offers 32 total IPs, of which 30 are usable — ideal for all four floors.
This means every floor can be assigned its own /27 subnet.
Step 2: Determine the Total Address Space Needed
Each /27 subnet uses 32 IP addresses. For four floors:
32 IPs × 4 = 128 total IP addresses
This fits perfectly within a /25 summary subnet, which provides exactly:
2^(32 - 25) = 128 total IPs
Step 3: Evaluate Other Options
Option A (/28): Only 16 total IPs (14 usable) — not enough for any floor.
Option B (/25 per floor): Each floor gets 128 IPs, but this results in significant IP wastage (only 20–29 users per floor).
Option D (/29): Only 8 IPs (6 usable) — completely insufficient.
The best balance of efficiency and functionality is achieved by using a 192.168.0.0/25 as the summary subnet, with each floor receiving a /27 subnet. This provides exactly what is needed: no waste, full user coverage, and simple summarization.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option C.
Question No 5:
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to view the routing table, and what key information does it provide about network routes?
A. show interfaces
B. show ip interface brief
C. show ip route
D. show version
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding how to inspect and interpret the routing table is a core skill for any network administrator, and it’s heavily emphasized in the Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam.
The command show ip route is used to display the current state of the routing table on a Cisco router. This table lists all known routes to reachable network destinations and how the router learned about them—whether statically configured, connected, or dynamically learned through a routing protocol such as OSPF or EIGRP.
Here’s what you’ll typically see when you use show ip route:
Route Codes: These identify how the route was learned. For example:
C = Connected (directly connected networks)
S = Static (manually configured routes)
O = OSPF (learned via OSPF)
D = EIGRP
R = RIP
Network Destination: The IP address and subnet mask of the destination network.
Next Hop Address: Where the packet should be sent next.
Interface: Which local interface will be used to reach that next hop.
Metric: The cost or distance to reach the network (lower is better).
Administrative Distance (AD): The trustworthiness of the route source.
Let’s break down the incorrect options:
Option A – show interfaces: This command displays the detailed status of each interface (like errors, speed, MTU), but it doesn't show routing information.
Option B – show ip interface brief: This gives a summarized status of IP addresses and interface states (up/down), which is helpful for quick diagnostics, but it doesn't show routing paths.
Option D – show version: This command provides hardware and software details about the device, including the IOS version, uptime, and system image—not routing information.
To examine routing behavior, verify paths to remote networks, and troubleshoot routing issues, show ip route is the correct and essential command. It helps network professionals understand how packets are forwarded and what paths are available.
Would you like additional practice questions focused on specific CCNA domains like subnetting, VLANs, or wireless networking?
Question No 6:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the purpose of a VLAN in a switched network?
A. It allows routers to dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts.
B. It physically separates network devices across different switches.
C. It enables the logical segmentation of a network at Layer 3.
D. It logically separates broadcast domains within a Layer 2 switch.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are a fundamental concept in modern Ethernet LAN design, and are thoroughly covered on the Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam. They provide a way to logically segment a network within a Layer 2 switching environment.
A broadcast domain is the set of all devices that receive broadcast frames originating from any device within that domain. By default, switches forward broadcast traffic to all ports in the same VLAN. Without VLANs, all ports on a switch belong to a single broadcast domain, which can lead to excessive broadcast traffic and security risks as the network grows.
A VLAN solves this by assigning switch ports to separate virtual networks, even if those ports are on the same physical switch. This segmentation means:
Devices in different VLANs cannot communicate directly without routing (usually done via a Layer 3 device like a router or Layer 3 switch).
Broadcasts are contained within each VLAN, reducing unnecessary traffic.
VLANs provide better security, scalability, and organization of network resources.
Now, let’s analyze the incorrect choices:
A – "It allows routers to dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts": This is actually the role of DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). VLANs don’t assign IP addresses; they logically group devices.
B – "It physically separates network devices across different switches": VLANs are about logical, not physical separation. Devices in the same VLAN can be on different physical switches, as long as trunking is configured between switches.
C – "It enables the logical segmentation of a network at Layer 3": VLANs operate at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer), not Layer 3. Routing between VLANs is what takes place at Layer 3.
D – "It logically separates broadcast domains within a Layer 2 switch": This is accurate. Each VLAN is its own broadcast domain, even when implemented on a single Layer 2 switch.
VLANs are a powerful tool for organizing and controlling traffic within a switched network. They allow administrators to break up a single Layer 2 network into multiple isolated broadcast domains, improving performance, manageability, and security. This concept is a core part of the CCNA and appears frequently in both the exam and real-world networking.
Would you like the next question to focus on topics like subnetting, wireless standards, or OSPF?
Question No 7:
Which of the following is the main reason for implementing Port Security on a switch?
A. To prevent loops by blocking redundant ports
B. To assign VLANs dynamically to switch ports
C. To limit and restrict the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port
D. To encrypt traffic passing through the switch port
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Port Security is a Layer 2 security feature commonly configured on Cisco switches to restrict access to switch ports based on MAC addresses. It helps prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network via unused or open switch ports.
When port security is configured on a switch port, the administrator can:
Limit the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on that port
Specify which MAC addresses are permitted (static or dynamic)
Define actions (violation modes) to take if an unauthorized MAC address attempts access — such as protect, restrict, or shutdown
This feature is especially important in environments like office buildings, schools, or public areas where physical access to network jacks might be easy for unauthorized users.
Let’s evaluate the other options:
A – "To prevent loops by blocking redundant ports": This refers to Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), not port security. STP prevents Layer 2 loops in a network with redundant paths.
B – "To assign VLANs dynamically to switch ports": VLAN assignment can be done dynamically using protocols like VMPS (VLAN Management Policy Server) or 802.1X, but this is unrelated to port security.
D – "To encrypt traffic passing through the switch port": Switch ports don’t encrypt traffic inherently. Encryption would involve technologies like IPSec or MACsec, but these are not part of basic port security.
C – "To limit and restrict the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port": This is the core function of port security. It helps mitigate MAC flooding attacks, reduce the risk of unauthorized access, and enhances overall LAN security.
Port Security is a critical security mechanism in switched networks. By limiting the number of MAC addresses per port and defining how violations are handled, administrators can greatly reduce the risk of unauthorized access and MAC address spoofing. This topic is emphasized in the Cisco 200-301 exam and is often tested in both theory and practical labs.
Would you like a question next about routing protocols, IPv6, or access control lists (ACLs)?
Question No 8:
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF in Cisco routers?
A. 110
B. 120
C. 90
D. 100
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative Distance (AD) is a critical concept in networking, especially in routing. It determines the trustworthiness of a route received from a particular routing protocol. When a router receives routes to the same destination from multiple sources (e.g., OSPF, EIGRP, RIP), it uses the Administrative Distance to decide which route to place in the routing table. The lower the AD value, the more preferred the routing source.
In Cisco routers, each routing protocol has a default AD value:
Connected interfaces: 0 (most trusted)
Static routes: 1
EIGRP (internal): 90
OSPF: 110
RIP: 120
EIGRP (external): 170
iBGP: 200
Unknown sources: 255 (untrusted)
OSPF, a link-state protocol, uses cost as its metric and builds a complete topology map using Dijkstra’s SPF algorithm. Despite its efficiency and scalability, its AD of 110 means it's considered less preferred than EIGRP (AD 90) and static routes (AD 1), but more trustworthy than RIP (AD 120).
Understanding AD is crucial in complex environments where multiple routing protocols may coexist. For example, if OSPF and RIP both advertise a route to the same network, the router chooses the OSPF route due to its lower AD.
To view or configure AD:
Changing the AD can help control routing decisions in multi-protocol networks. However, doing so requires caution as it may introduce routing loops or suboptimal paths if misconfigured.
Question No 9:
Which of the following commands is used to view the ARP table on a Cisco router?
A. show ip interface brief
B. show mac address-table
C. show ip arp
D. show arp-table
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) table is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local area network. This is crucial for enabling communication at Layer 2 (Data Link) when devices only have an IP address and need to know the corresponding MAC address to forward traffic.
In a Cisco router, the correct command to display the ARP table is:
This command lists the IP address, hardware (MAC) address, interface, and age of each entry. For example:
Let’s examine why the other options are incorrect:
A. show ip interface brief: This command gives a summary of all router interfaces, their IP addresses, and their status (up/down). It doesn’t show MAC-to-IP mappings.
B. show mac address-table: This command is typically used on switches, not routers. It displays the MAC address table used for Layer 2 switching, not the ARP cache.
D. show arp-table: This is not a valid Cisco IOS command.
ARP entries are populated dynamically when the router sends or receives packets on a network segment. In environments using static mappings, entries can also be configured manually.
Understanding the ARP table helps in troubleshooting connectivity issues, such as duplicate IPs, missing entries, or MAC spoofing. It's particularly helpful when diagnosing problems in environments using static IP assignments or network segmentation.
Question No 10:
Which of the following best describes the function of the NAT overload feature?
A. It allows a single inside local address to be mapped to multiple inside global addresses.
B. It maps multiple inside global addresses to one inside local address.
C. It allows multiple inside local addresses to share a single inside global address using port numbers.
D. It provides end-to-end encryption for NAT-translated traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique used to map private (internal) IP addresses to public (external) IP addresses. This is essential because IPv4 public address space is limited, and most organizations use private IP addresses internally.
NAT Overload, also known as PAT (Port Address Translation), is the most common type of NAT. It allows multiple internal hosts to access the Internet simultaneously using one public IP address. It does this by using unique source port numbers to track each session.
Let’s break this down:
Internal devices (with private IPs like 192.168.1.10, 192.168.1.20) send traffic to the Internet.
The NAT router translates their private IPs to one public IP (e.g., 203.0.113.5).
It appends a unique source port number to each session to keep them distinct.
When responses come back, the router uses the port number to map the traffic to the correct internal host.
This method enables efficient use of a single IP address for many users and maintains session integrity.
Let’s clarify the options:
A – Single inside local to multiple globals: This is the opposite of NAT overload and rarely used.
B – Multiple globals to one local: Also incorrect; not a typical use case.
C – Multiple inside locals sharing one global IP with port numbers: Correct. This is the core concept of NAT overload.
D – Provides encryption: Incorrect. NAT does not provide encryption. Technologies like VPN (IPsec) provide encryption.
NAT overload is widely used in home networks, SMBs, and enterprise edge routers, making it a key concept for any network engineer preparing for the Cisco 200-301 exam.
