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Oracle 1z0-1094-23 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions


Question No 1:

You are setting up a data integration mapping in Oracle Data Integrator (ODI) and working with source tables from an on-premises Oracle Database. 

When reverse-engineering a model, which three pieces of information from the source tables can be retrieved? (Choose three.)

A. Constraints
B. Column names
C. Data types
D. Table owner
E. Table statistics

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation:

In Oracle Data Integrator (ODI), reverse-engineering a model is the process of extracting metadata from a source system, such as an Oracle Database, and importing it into ODI to facilitate data integration tasks. During this process, ODI retrieves structural and basic information about the source tables. Let’s explore the correct and incorrect options:

A. Constraints
This is incorrect. Constraints, such as primary keys, foreign keys, and check constraints, are important for maintaining data integrity but are not typically retrieved during the reverse-engineering process in ODI. ODI mainly focuses on gathering metadata related to table structures, column names, and data types, and does not handle constraints unless additional steps are performed.

B. Column names
 This is correct. Column names are one of the key pieces of metadata retrieved during the reverse-engineering process. These names define the structure of the table and are crucial when creating data mappings in ODI. They allow you to reference the data accurately when performing transformations and integrations.

C. Data types
This is correct. Data types associated with each column in the source tables are also retrieved during reverse engineering. These data types help ODI understand how data is formatted and stored in the source system, which is critical for ensuring that the data is correctly mapped and integrated into the target system.

D. Table owner
This is correct. The table owner, or the schema in which the table resides, is another piece of metadata that is retrieved during reverse-engineering. Knowing the owner is essential because it helps to identify the schema the table belongs to, which is important when building mappings and ensuring that the right data is integrated.

E. Table statistics
This is incorrect. Table statistics, including information on row counts and index usage, are not typically retrieved during the reverse-engineering process. ODI focuses primarily on structural metadata, not performance or statistical data about the tables.

In conclusion, the correct answers are B, C, and D, which represent the column names, data types, and table owner that ODI retrieves when reverse-engineering a model. These elements are essential for creating accurate data mappings and performing data integration.

Question No 2:

Which two Knowledge Modules (KM) need to be imported to your project for the Oracle Database source? (Choose two.)

A. LKM SQL to MSSQL
B. IKM XML Control Append
C. RKM Oracle
D. CKM HSQL
E. LKM SQL to Oracle

Correct Answer: C, E

Explanation:

In Oracle Data Integrator (ODI), Knowledge Modules (KMs) are essential for performing tasks such as reverse engineering, loading data, or transforming data between different databases. For an Oracle Database source, the appropriate KMs must be used to interact with the Oracle system for reverse engineering and creating mappings.

  • C. RKM Oracle: The RKM Oracle (Reverse Knowledge Module) is used to reverse engineer the source database schema and extract metadata from the Oracle Database. This KM is essential for analyzing and understanding the structure of the Oracle Database source tables, which allows ODI to generate the necessary mappings.

  • E. LKM SQL to Oracle: The LKM SQL to Oracle (Loading Knowledge Module) is used for transferring data from a source database to an Oracle Database. This KM helps in extracting data from the source system and preparing it for loading into the Oracle Database. It handles the data extraction and loading process between the source and the Oracle target.

The other options are not related to Oracle Database:

  • A. LKM SQL to MSSQL: This is a Loading Knowledge Module designed for loading data from a source database to a Microsoft SQL Server (MSSQL) database. It is not used for Oracle Database as the source.

  • B. IKM XML Control Append: This is an Integration Knowledge Module designed for handling XML data. It is used for specific XML-related processes and does not apply to the Oracle Database source.

  • D. CKM HSQL: This is a Check Knowledge Module for HSQL (HyperSQL Database), which is not related to Oracle Database and is used for checking data integrity and consistency in an HSQL environment.

In summary, the RKM Oracle and LKM SQL to Oracle are the correct Knowledge Modules needed for reverse engineering and working with an Oracle Database source in ODI.

Question No 3:

Which four are valid parameters to use with the migrate database command in Oracle Zero Downtime Migration (ZDM)?

A. -sourcedb
B. -sourcesid
C. -dbpatchlevel
D. -dbversion
E. -tdemasterkey
F. -tgtroot

Answer: A, B, C, F

Explanation:

Oracle Zero Downtime Migration (ZDM) is a tool that allows for seamless migration of Oracle databases to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) or to another on-premises environment with minimal downtime. When using the migrate database command in ZDM, several parameters can be specified to control the migration process. Let’s explore the valid options:

  • A. -sourcedb: This is a valid parameter. The -sourcedb parameter is used to specify the source database for the migration. This parameter allows you to define which database is being migrated to the target environment.

  • B. -sourcesid: This is also a valid parameter. The -sourcesid parameter specifies the Oracle System Identifier (SID) of the source database that you want to migrate. This is required to identify the source database instance during the migration process.

  • C. -dbpatchlevel: This is a valid parameter. The -dbpatchlevel parameter indicates the patch level of the source database. This is useful to ensure compatibility between the source and target database during migration. It helps to verify that the database is at the appropriate patch level before performing the migration.

  • D. -dbversion: This is not a valid parameter. The -dbversion parameter is not required or valid in the context of Oracle ZDM’s migrate database command. The tool doesn’t use this option for specifying the database version directly.

  • E. -tdemasterkey: This is not a valid parameter. The -tdemasterkey parameter is not used during the migration process in Oracle ZDM. It might be relevant for certain security configurations, but not for the database migration command itself.

  • F. -tgtroot: This is a valid parameter. The -tgtroot parameter is used to specify the root directory for the target system. It defines where the migration target should be set up on the target machine, making it an important option during the migration.

Therefore, the correct answers are A, B, C, and F, as these are the valid parameters for the migrate database command in Oracle ZDM.

Question No 4:

How can you properly pause a Zero Downtime Migration (ZDM) job?

A. By executing the zdmcli -pausejob command at any time
B. By executing the zdmcli migrate database command with the -pauseafter option, alongside specifying the relevant migration phase where ZDM should pause the migration process, or by executing the zdmcli suspend job -jobid command at any time during the migration
C. By executing the zdmcli migrate database command using the -pause option
D. By querying the ZDM service host with the relevant job ID and executing the zdmcli -pausejob command

Answer: B

Explanation:

In Oracle's Zero Downtime Migration (ZDM) tool, pausing a migration job is an important feature to allow control over the migration process. The goal of ZDM is to perform migrations with minimal impact on the production environment, and pausing the migration job is useful in cases where you need to temporarily halt the migration process for troubleshooting, validation, or other operational reasons.

Let’s review each option to understand how to pause a ZDM job:

A. By executing the zdmcli -pausejob command at any time:
This option is incorrect because the zdmcli -pausejob command is not a valid command in ZDM for pausing a migration job. The ZDM CLI tool does not use the "-pausejob" flag in this way, so this command will not work for pausing a migration job.

B. By executing the zdmcli migrate database command with the -pauseafter option, alongside specifying the relevant migration phase where ZDM should pause the migration process, or by executing the zdmcli suspend job -jobid command at any time during the migration:
This is the correct answer. The -pauseafter option is used with the zdmcli migrate database command to specify a particular phase of the migration where ZDM should pause. Additionally, zdmcli suspend job -jobid can be used at any time during the migration to suspend the job. These are the valid and correct methods for pausing a migration job in ZDM.

C. By executing the zdmcli migrate database command using the -pause option:
This option is incorrect because the -pause option is not a valid flag for the zdmcli migrate database command in ZDM. ZDM does not use a simple -pause option to pause migration; instead, the -pauseafter option or the zdmcli suspend job command should be used.

D. By querying the ZDM service host with the relevant job ID and executing the zdmcli -pausejob command:
This is also incorrect, as there is no -pausejob command in ZDM. The correct way to pause a job is by using the -pauseafter option during the migration or using the zdmcli suspend job command.

To summarize, the correct way to properly pause a Zero Downtime Migration job is by using the zdmcli migrate database command with the -pauseafter option, or by executing the zdmcli suspend job -jobid command during the migration process. Therefore, B is the correct answer.

Question No 5:

Which utility should be used to instantiate a target ATP-D database when the source database version is 12c?

A. Datafile Copy to Object Storage
B. Oracle RMAN Duplicate Database
C. Oracle Data Pump
D. SQL Developer Migration Wizard

Answer: D

Explanation:

When migrating or instantiating a target database in Oracle Autonomous Transaction Processing Database (ATP-D) from an Oracle 12c database, it is essential to use a utility that supports the Oracle Autonomous Database (ADB) environment. ATP-D is a fully managed, serverless database service in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, so specific tools are required to handle data migration effectively.

Option A (Datafile Copy to Object Storage) refers to a technique used for transferring datafiles from an on-premises database to Object Storage, typically used in cases where you want to perform database migrations using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) storage. However, this method is not ideal for instantiating an ATP-D database. Datafile copy methods usually require significant setup, and ATP-D is not compatible with direct datafile-based restoration due to its architecture.

Option B (Oracle RMAN Duplicate Database) is not suitable for ATP-D. RMAN (Recovery Manager) is primarily used for backing up and restoring databases or performing duplication within on-premises environments or traditional Oracle databases. However, ATP-D does not support RMAN-based duplications due to its cloud-native architecture and the fact that it is a managed service with different underlying infrastructure. RMAN is not directly applicable for instantiating a target ATP-D database from an on-premises 12c database.

Option C (Oracle Data Pump) is a highly effective utility for transferring data and metadata between databases. While Data Pump is widely used for exporting and importing database objects, it does not directly instantiate an ATP-D database. Data Pump is ideal for moving data across Oracle databases but requires a higher level of customization and setup to support ATP-D.

Option D (SQL Developer Migration Wizard) is the correct choice. The SQL Developer Migration Wizard is designed to facilitate database migrations to Oracle Autonomous Databases (including ATP-D) by guiding users through the process of converting database objects and data from a source database to the target ATP-D instance. It offers an easy-to-use interface and ensures compatibility with the ATP-D environment. This utility is tailored to meet the specific needs of migrating data to Oracle Cloud's managed database services, such as ATP-D, making it the most appropriate tool for instantiating an ATP-D database from a source 12c database.

Therefore, the most suitable utility for instantiating the target ATP-D database is D, SQL Developer Migration Wizard, due to its compatibility with Oracle Autonomous Database services and its ability to simplify the migration process.

Question No 6:

What is the default port opened in the compute instance Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) security list to allow access to the GoldenGate deployments through the Nginx reverse proxy server?

A. 22
B. 8080
C. 1521
D. 443

Answer: B

Explanation:

When configuring Oracle GoldenGate Hub, it is common to use a reverse proxy server, like Nginx, to handle HTTP/HTTPS traffic. The GoldenGate deployment typically relies on web-based access for configuration, monitoring, and management. Nginx is used to forward requests to the GoldenGate components.

  • Port 22 is commonly used for SSH (Secure Shell) access, which is typically for administrative purposes and not for GoldenGate web traffic. Therefore, A is not the correct answer.

  • Port 8080 is the default port used for web-based applications and HTTP traffic. In the context of GoldenGate deployments, port 8080 is the default port that Nginx listens on to provide access to the GoldenGate web interface. This port is typically open in the security list to allow access through the reverse proxy server. Thus, B is the correct answer.

  • Port 1521 is used by Oracle databases for the Oracle Net Listener (SQL*Net), and while GoldenGate interacts with Oracle databases, this port is not relevant to web-based access through the reverse proxy server. Therefore, C is incorrect.

  • Port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic. While secure access to the GoldenGate interface might be configured over HTTPS, by default, the web access port through Nginx is 8080 for HTTP. Port 443 could be used if SSL is configured, but it is not the default in the context of GoldenGate Hub deployments. Therefore, D is also incorrect.

In conclusion, B (8080) is the default port that is typically opened in the VCN security list to allow access to GoldenGate deployments through the Nginx reverse proxy server.

Question No 7:

Which statement is NOT true about the multitenant (container database) architecture of Oracle Database?

A. The background processes are shared between PDBs.
B. The SGA is shared between PDBs.
C. The redo log files are shared between PDBs.
D. The data files are shared between PDBs.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The multitenant architecture in Oracle Database allows multiple Pluggable Databases (PDBs) to share a single Container Database (CDB). This architecture is designed to provide better consolidation, ease of management, and resource optimization. However, it is important to understand the distinction between resources that are shared across PDBs and those that are not.

Let’s break down each option:

  • A. The background processes are shared between PDBs:
    This statement is true. In a multitenant architecture, the background processes (such as SMON, PMON, DBWR, and others) are shared by all PDBs within the same CDB. These processes manage the resources of the entire CDB, and they perform tasks for all the PDBs running within that container. Thus, the background processes are not specific to any individual PDB.

  • B. The SGA is shared between PDBs:
    This statement is true. The System Global Area (SGA) is a shared memory area in Oracle Database that holds data and control information. In the multitenant architecture, the SGA is shared among all the PDBs in the CDB. The SGA contains structures such as the buffer cache, shared pool, and redo log buffers, which are used by all PDBs. It helps in optimizing memory utilization across PDBs.

  • C. The redo log files are shared between PDBs:
    This statement is true. The redo log files are also shared between all PDBs within the same CDB. Redo log files store changes made to the database, and since all PDBs in the container are part of the same database instance, they share the redo logs for tracking changes across all databases.

  • D. The data files are shared between PDBs:
    This statement is NOT true. In the multitenant architecture, data files are not shared between PDBs. Each PDB has its own data files that are stored separately. These data files contain the actual data for each PDB and are isolated from the other PDBs. The container database (CDB) contains system data files that are shared, but the individual PDBs have their own unique set of data files.

Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the data files are not shared between PDBs in a multitenant Oracle Database architecture. Each PDB has its own set of data files, ensuring that each PDB’s data remains separate and isolated from the others.

Question No 8:

Which two statements are true about online pluggable database (PDB) relocation? (Choose two.)

A. PDB relocation with no version change can be performed with near-zero downtime.
B. PDB with the ASCII character set can be relocated to a container database (CDB) with the AL32UTF8 character set.
C. Online PDB relocation can achieve a zero downtime upgrade.
D. Database version downgrade can be achieved with PDB relocation.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:

Online pluggable database (PDB) relocation is a feature in Oracle that allows you to move a PDB from one container database (CDB) to another while it is still online. This process is very useful for tasks like load balancing, disaster recovery, or even upgrading/downgrading databases. However, there are certain limitations and scenarios where this feature can be leveraged effectively.

Benefit of Option A:
PDB relocation with no version change can be performed with near-zero downtime: This statement is true because online PDB relocation can be carried out without any version change between the source and target container databases, which results in minimal downtime. The process is optimized so that only a small window of downtime is required to perform the final steps of the relocation, allowing the PDB to remain online for the majority of the operation. This is considered near-zero downtime, making it highly efficient for production environments where minimal disruption is desired.

Benefit of Option B:
PDB with the ASCII character set can be relocated to a container database (CDB) with the AL32UTF8 character set: This is another true statement. When relocating a PDB to a target CDB, the character set of the PDB does not necessarily have to match that of the target CDB. Oracle supports relocation of PDBs between CDBs with different character sets, provided the migration is handled properly. In this case, the source PDB with the ASCII character set can be relocated to a CDB with the AL32UTF8 character set. However, you should ensure that the character set conversion is supported and done correctly, as some data might need adjustments due to the difference in encoding schemes.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

  • Option C: While online PDB relocation offers minimal downtime, it does not achieve zero downtime upgrades. Zero-downtime upgrades are typically accomplished using other methods such as Oracle Data Guard or Oracle GoldenGate. Relocation itself does not inherently upgrade the database or its version, and thus cannot be used to achieve a zero downtime upgrade.

  • Option D: A database version downgrade cannot be achieved with PDB relocation. PDB relocation is typically performed between CDBs running the same version of Oracle Database. Oracle does not support downgrading a database version using PDB relocation. If a version change is required, you would need to perform an upgrade or a more complex migration process.

Thus, the correct answers are A and B because they accurately describe supported behaviors and capabilities of the online PDB relocation process in Oracle.

Question No 9:

You have a security requirement within your organization to separate your resources. There is a team that supports each resource and they are not allowed access to the other resources. 

Which security control feature of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure meets this requirement?

A. Key Management
B. Tagging
C. Compartments and Policies
D. Federation

Answer: C

Explanation:

In Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI), the Compartments and Policies feature is the most suitable security control to meet the requirement of separating resources and controlling access between teams. Let’s break down why this feature is the best choice:

Compartments and Policies are central to OCI’s security model. Compartments provide a way to logically isolate resources within OCI, ensuring that different teams or departments can only access the resources they are authorized to work with. Compartments act as virtual boundaries for resources, so by placing different resources in different compartments, you can enforce strict access control between them.

Once resources are separated into compartments, policies are used to define who has access to those compartments and what actions they can perform. Policies are attached to compartments and specify the level of access (e.g., read-only, write, or full access) a user or group has. This granular level of access control ensures that teams can only interact with the resources assigned to their compartment and are restricted from accessing or modifying resources in other compartments.

For example, you could create separate compartments for different teams, such as one for the Development team and another for the Operations team, and use policies to ensure that the Development team can only manage resources in their compartment while the Operations team cannot access the Development team's resources. This level of separation is exactly what is needed to meet the security requirement described.

Now, let's review the other options:

A. Key Management is primarily used to manage encryption keys and secrets within OCI. While it is an important feature for securing data, it does not provide the functionality to separate resources or control access between teams.

B. Tagging is useful for categorizing and organizing resources in OCI, but it does not provide security controls to isolate resources or enforce access restrictions. While tags can help with management and reporting, they do not directly address the need for separating resources between teams.

D. Federation refers to the ability to integrate OCI with an external identity provider (IdP) for user authentication and access control. Federation allows users from an external IdP to access OCI resources, but it does not provide the functionality to separate resources or define access policies between different teams within OCI itself.

In conclusion, Compartments and Policies is the correct security control feature because it directly enables resource separation and access control between teams, fulfilling the requirement effectively.

Question No 10:

What type of host should you set up in order to gain access to the rest of your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure instances when working within a private subnet?

A. Encrypted host
B. Isolation host
C. Bastion host
D. Private host

Answer: C

Explanation:

When you're working in a private subnet within a cloud environment such as Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI), the instances in that subnet typically don't have direct access to the internet for security reasons. This setup is common when you want to protect sensitive data or services from external exposure. However, there are times when you need to manage or interact with these private instances, and in such cases, you need a way to access them securely.

A Bastion host is a special type of host used in cloud environments to facilitate secure access to instances within private subnets. The bastion host is typically deployed in a public subnet with a public IP address, and you connect to it first. Once connected to the bastion host, you can then access other resources in the private subnet using secure protocols like SSH (for Linux instances) or RDP (for Windows instances).

The other options are not suitable for this purpose:

  • A. Encrypted host: Encryption typically refers to securing data in transit or at rest, but it does not address the need for secure access between subnets in a cloud environment.

  • B. Isolation host: Isolation refers to keeping resources separate for security or performance reasons, but an isolation host isn't a standard solution for gaining access to instances in a private subnet.

  • D. Private host: A private host is simply a host in a private subnet that doesn't have direct access to the internet. It does not facilitate access to other private resources within the cloud.

Therefore, the correct solution for gaining access to your private subnet instances is to set up a Bastion host in a public subnet to provide secure access.