Checkpoint 156-835 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
How many power supply units can the MHO-170 accommodate?
A Two
B One
C One with the possibility of adding a second
D Four
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Check Point MHO-170 is a Hyperscale network security appliance used in Maestro infrastructure. It is designed with a compact yet scalable form factor, allowing organizations to deploy it in various environments with flexible hardware configuration.
A key hardware consideration in such deployments is power redundancy, which directly impacts system uptime and fault tolerance. The number of power supply units (PSUs) a device can accommodate is an essential aspect of this redundancy.
The MHO-170 appliance ships with one power supply unit by default, but it has the physical capacity and architectural support for a second PSU, allowing users to add it if they desire power redundancy. This is typical in enterprise-grade hardware where flexibility and high availability are prioritized.
Here's a breakdown of why each option stands as correct or incorrect:
A is incorrect because while two PSUs can be present, only one is installed by default. Saying "Two" without qualification may mislead the reader to believe both are standard.
B is incorrect because while only one PSU is present by default, the appliance has space and capability for a second one.
C is correct. This option accurately reflects the reality that the MHO-170 comes with one power supply installed, but the device can accommodate a second PSU for redundancy.
D is incorrect because the MHO-170 does not support four PSUs. That capacity would be expected in higher-end or modular chassis systems, not in compact models like the MHO-170.
In summary, the MHO-170 offers expandable power redundancy. It supports one PSU by default, and customers can add a second for backup or failover support. This makes C the most accurate and technically precise answer.
Question 2
Which command is used to collect diagnostic data for the orchestrator?
A cpinfo
B orch_info
C cpview
D asg pert -v
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a Check Point Maestro environment, the orchestrator is a key component that connects security gateways into a unified, scalable system. Managing and diagnosing issues within this infrastructure often requires collecting comprehensive diagnostic data from the orchestrator to analyze system health, performance metrics, and configuration consistency.
To assist with such diagnostics, Check Point provides the orch_info command.
The orch_info command is specifically designed to gather orchestrator-level information, including hardware status, configuration files, logs, versioning, and connectivity data. It is the recommended tool by Check Point Support when opening service requests involving Maestro orchestrators.
Let’s review the other options:
A (cpinfo) is incorrect. While cpinfo is a general Check Point diagnostic utility used to collect information from gateways and management servers (like logs, configurations, and software versions), it is not specifically tailored for orchestrator diagnostics in Maestro deployments.
B (orch_info) is correct. This command is dedicated to collecting orchestration-layer diagnostics. It gathers detailed system reports relevant to the orchestrator, making it essential for Maestro-related troubleshooting.
C (cpview) is incorrect. While cpview is a performance monitoring tool that provides a real-time and historical view of system metrics on security gateways or management servers, it is not used for collecting orchestrator-level diagnostics.
D (asg pert -v) is incorrect. The asg pert -v command is related to the performance enhancement routing table (PERT) in Scalable Platform (SP) environments. It provides verbose details on traffic distribution across SGMs but is not a diagnostic collection command for orchestrators.
In summary, when troubleshooting or reporting issues involving the Maestro orchestrator, orch_info is the definitive command for collecting the relevant data set. It provides orchestrator-specific insights that general tools like cpinfo or cpview cannot, making B the correct and specialized answer.
Question 3
Where is the Owner’s information saved during a correction process?
A Within the Connection tables of all Appliances involved in the Correction Layer flow
B Inside the Correction tables of all participating Appliances
C In the Correction table of the Target Appliance
D In the Target Appliance's Connection table
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Check Point Maestro's Correction Layer (CL) architecture, connection ownership and state synchronization are critical for ensuring packet flow consistency and redundancy across multiple appliances in a Security Group (SG). When traffic is processed, it's important to determine the “Owner” — the appliance responsible for maintaining the connection state and handling specific traffic flows.
During the Correction Layer process, if a packet arrives at an appliance that is not the Owner (called a non-Owner), a correction process is initiated. This process involves forwarding the packet to the actual Owner so that connection consistency is maintained. The Target Appliance is the one that ultimately owns the connection and is responsible for processing the packet after correction.
Now, regarding where the Owner's information is saved during this process:
The Correction table on each appliance is responsible for handling connection redirection during the correction process.
The Target Appliance, which is the correct Owner for the connection, maintains a correction entry that includes routing and owner information to process subsequent packets correctly and efficiently.
Let’s assess the options:
A is incorrect. The connection table contains active session data, but it is not where owner mapping information is stored during correction.
B is incorrect because not all participating appliances need to store correction information permanently. The correction process is primarily handled at the Target Appliance, which becomes the Owner.
C is correct. The Correction table of the Target Appliance stores the Owner’s information after the correction is processed. This allows the Target Appliance to recognize and handle future packets belonging to that flow appropriately.
D is incorrect because the connection table is used for session tracking, not for storing Correction Layer ownership metadata.
In summary, during a correction flow in Maestro, only the Target Appliance’s Correction table retains the necessary Owner information to handle future packets. This ensures optimized forwarding and avoids redundant correction cycles. Therefore, C is the correct answer.
Question 4
What are the default GAIA interface names for Security Group Management ports on the MHO-170?
A eth1-Mgmt1 and eth1-Mgmt2
B eth1-Mgmt1 and eth2-Mgmt1
C eth1-Mgmt1 and eth1-Mgmt3
D eth1-Mgmt3 and eth1-Mgmt4
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Check Point Maestro architecture, the MHO-170 Orchestrator facilitates traffic distribution and synchronization between multiple Security Gateway Modules (SGMs) in a Security Group. Each SGM, when connected to an MHO-170, uses designated management interfaces to receive configuration, policy, and synchronization instructions.
These management interfaces are automatically named by the GAIA operating system, and follow a consistent naming pattern, especially when connected via the default ports on the MHO-170 chassis.
The default management ports used by the Maestro infrastructure for SGMs on the MHO-170 are:
eth1-Mgmt1
eth1-Mgmt2
These ports are physically located on the MHO-170 chassis and are logically assigned to the first orchestrator network processor (eth1), with each subsequent MgmtX referring to a unique physical port. These two ports are used for managing the SGMs, pushing policies, and interacting with SmartConsole or management servers.
Let’s assess the options:
A is correct. These are the two default management interfaces for Security Group members on the MHO-170. They correspond to the dedicated management ports used for out-of-band management tasks.
B is incorrect because eth2-Mgmt1 is not a standard interface name on the MHO-170; GAIA does not assign this by default for SGM management.
C is incorrect. eth1-Mgmt3 is typically used in other roles (e.g., for Orchestrator management or internal communication) and is not part of the default Security Group management port set.
D is also incorrect. Neither eth1-Mgmt3 nor eth1-Mgmt4 is used by default as the primary SGM management ports.
In conclusion, on the MHO-170, the default management interfaces assigned to handle Security Group communications and orchestration are eth1-Mgmt1 and eth1-Mgmt2, making A the correct answer. This naming convention ensures predictable and consistent interface mapping across all Maestro components.
Question 5
What best describes a Security Group?
A A logical grouping of computing and network resources
B A collection of security administrators
C A cluster of security gateways
D A set of appliances running NGTX blades
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of Check Point Maestro, a Security Group is a foundational concept representing a logical cluster of security gateways. These gateways are orchestrated and managed collectively to provide high availability, scalability, and redundancy in large-scale network environments.
Security Groups allow multiple Security Gateway Modules (SGMs) to act as a single logical gateway. Each group shares the same policy, configuration, and traffic-handling responsibilities. This design enables organizations to scale horizontally by adding more appliances (SGMs) to the group, distributing the traffic load efficiently across all members.
Let’s analyze the provided options:
A is incorrect. While it describes a general cloud or network term, in Check Point Maestro, a Security Group specifically refers to a grouping of security gateways, not generic computing resources.
B is incorrect because it refers to personnel (administrators), not a network or appliance-based structure. Security Groups are not related to users or RBAC configurations.
C is correct. A Security Group in Maestro is a cluster of security gateways (SGMs) working together under a unified policy and configuration. The orchestrator distributes traffic among these gateways based on connection ownership and optimization.
D is incorrect. While it’s true that the appliances in a Security Group can run NGTX blades (Next-Generation Threat Prevention features), this characteristic doesn’t define what a Security Group is. Not all Security Groups are required to run NGTX blades.
In conclusion, a Security Group is best described as a cluster of security gateways that together form a single logical unit in a Maestro environment. This makes C the most accurate and complete answer.
Question 6
Which command should be used to update the fwkern.conf file on every Appliance in a Security Group?
A g_update_conf_file
B g_update_kernel
C vi
D g_all update_conf_file
Answer: A
Explanation:
When managing a Security Group in a CheckPoint Maestro deployment, administrators often need to apply configuration changes uniformly across all Security Gateway Modules (SGMs) within the group. One such file that may need updating is fwkern.conf, which is used to configure kernel-level settings for the security gateway.
To propagate a change in the fwkern.conf file across all SGMs in a group, Check Point provides a specialized command: g_update_conf_file.
This command is specifically designed to distribute configuration file changes to all appliances in a Security Group, ensuring consistency and avoiding manual edits on each appliance individually. It abstracts the file update process and performs the necessary replication across all relevant nodes.
Let’s review the options:
A (g_update_conf_file) is correct. This is the designated command to update a configuration file like fwkern.conf across every appliance in a Security Group. It ensures that all SGMs receive the same file and prevents configuration drift between devices.
B (g_update_kernel) is incorrect. There is no such command in Maestro for updating kernel configuration files across SGMs. This may be a distractor combining “kernel” and “update” terms to sound plausible.
C (vi) is incorrect because vi is a text editor used to manually edit files on a single appliance. While it could be used to edit fwkern.conf, doing so would only affect one appliance and would not replicate the change to other SGMs in the Security Group.
D (g_all update_conf_file) is incorrect because g_all is used to run the same command across all appliances, but update_conf_file is not a recognized shell command. Moreover, using g_all would not correctly handle replication logic or file validation the way g_update_conf_file does.
In summary, when you need to update configuration files such as fwkern.conf across all appliances in a Security Group, the proper and safest method is to use g_update_conf_file, making A the correct answer.
Question 7
What is the default port range used for downlinks on the MHO-170 Orchestrator?
A Ports 3 through 16
B Ports 17 through 31
C Ports 25 through 32
D Ports 1 through 16
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Check Point Maestro deployments, the MHO-170 Orchestrator plays a central role in connecting and coordinating traffic among Security Gateway Modules (SGMs) and external networks. The ports on the MHO-170 are divided into uplinks, downlinks, and management ports, with each category serving a specific function.
Understanding the default port assignments is crucial for initial setup, interface mapping, and correct traffic routing within the Maestro architecture.
Downlinks connect the Orchestrator to the Security Group Members (SGMs).
Uplinks connect the Orchestrator to the external network or data center switches.
By default, the MHO-170 uses ports 17 through 31 as downlink ports. These ports are automatically allocated for internal fabric connectivity, meaning they are used to connect to SGMs and facilitate traffic distribution within a Security Group. These downlink ports serve as the backbone for forwarding and receiving orchestrated traffic to/from the gateways.
Now let’s examine the options:
A (Ports 3 through 16) is incorrect. These ports are not designated as downlinks by default. Depending on the configuration, ports in this range are more commonly used for uplinks or custom assignment.
B (Ports 17 through 31) is correct. These are the default downlink ports used to connect the Orchestrator to the SGMs.
C (Ports 25 through 32) is incorrect because it extends beyond the default range. Port 32 is not typically included in the default downlink assignment.
D (Ports 1 through 16) is incorrect. These ports are generally used for uplink connectivity or external data plane links, not internal orchestration.
In conclusion, Ports 17 through 31 on the MHO-170 are assigned by default to function as downlinks for communicating with the SGMs. This makes B the correct answer.
Question 8
When there is no IP increment, what is the default IP range for the Sync network?
A Same as the Management network
B 198.51.100.0
C 192.0.2.0
D 192.168.1.0
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a Check Point Maestro environment, the Sync network plays a critical role in enabling communication between Security Group Members (SGMs) for state synchronization, including session states, connection tables, and policy enforcement coordination. It ensures high availability and redundancy, making it a foundational layer in active-active clustering.
When configuring a Security Group, Maestro assigns IP addresses for various internal networks such as Management, Sync, and Data Plane. If the administrator does not provide a custom IP increment or override, Maestro defaults to specific IP subnets for these network types.
The Sync network—responsible for maintaining synchronization across all SGMs—uses the 192.0.2.0/24 subnet by default when no increment or override is specified.
This subnet, 192.0.2.0/24, is part of the TEST-NET-1 block, which is reserved by IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) for documentation and example usage. Despite being reserved for documentation, vendors like Check Point commonly use these non-routable ranges for internal communication within closed environments like Maestro's orchestration plane.
Now, let's analyze the options:
A (Same as the Management network) is incorrect. Maestro assigns a distinct subnet for each internal network type, including Sync and Management, to avoid IP conflicts and maintain logical separation.
B (198.51.100.0) is incorrect. This is part of the TEST-NET-2 range and is not used by default in Maestro for any internal role.
C (192.0.2.0) is correct. This subnet is the default for the Sync network when no IP increment is applied.
D (192.168.1.0) is incorrect. Although this is a common private IP range, it is not the default subnet used by Maestro for Sync communication.
In conclusion, when configuring a Security Group without defining an IP increment, Maestro defaults to using the 192.0.2.0/24 subnet for the Sync network, making C the correct answer.
Question 9
What is the minimum number of physical connections needed to link an appliance to the Orchestrator?
A. Three cables: uplink, downlink, and SYNC
B. Only one downlink cable
C. Two cables: uplink and downlink
D. Four cables: uplink, downlink, SYNC, and Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a typical network security deployment that involves an Orchestrator managing multiple appliances (such as inline security appliances or service chaining devices), there is a requirement for physical connectivity between the appliance and the Orchestrator to allow for proper traffic flow and control. The minimum number of physical connections required to establish this functional communication is two:
Uplink cable – This connection is used to send traffic from the appliance toward the upstream network or the orchestrator. It typically carries packets that have already been processed by the appliance and are destined to continue along the network path.
Downlink cable – This connection receives incoming traffic from the orchestrator or the downstream network that needs to be processed by the appliance.
These two cables form the essential bidirectional data path for the appliance to perform its role in traffic inspection, filtering, or other network functions within the orchestrator-controlled environment. Without both uplink and downlink cables, the appliance would not be able to receive and return traffic properly, rendering it ineffective in the service chain.
Now let’s briefly examine the other options:
Option A: Three cables: uplink, downlink, and SYNC – This setup might be used in scenarios where synchronization is required between appliances, such as in high availability (HA) deployments. However, synchronization is not mandatory for a basic, functioning appliance-to-orchestrator connection.
Option B: Only one downlink cable – This is insufficient because traffic would only be received but not sent back into the network. A single connection cannot support bidirectional traffic flow required in most deployments.
Option D: Four cables: uplink, downlink, SYNC, and Management – While comprehensive and possibly used in more complex deployments for full monitoring, HA, and management, this exceeds the minimum requirement. Management and SYNC cables are not essential for basic operation between the appliance and orchestrator.
Therefore, the minimum setup requires only two physical connections – the uplink and downlink – which allows for traffic to flow to and from the appliance via the orchestrator, ensuring operational functionality with minimal hardware setup.
Question 10
What is the highest number of Appliances that can be part of a single Security Group?
A. 16
B. 31
C. 52
D. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Security Group in the context of network security infrastructure—especially within systems involving centralized management (such as orchestration platforms controlling multiple security appliances)—is a logical grouping of appliances that work together to process, manage, or inspect network traffic as a unified unit. Each security group typically shares a common policy or traffic processing purpose and can be scaled out by adding more appliances to handle greater traffic loads.
The maximum number of appliances that can participate in a single Security Group is 31. This limit is a platform-defined architectural constraint, often influenced by several factors:
The system’s ability to track and manage sessions across all members of the group.
The synchronization overhead between members (particularly when session awareness, load balancing, or traffic symmetry is required).
The capability of the Orchestrator or central management platform to allocate resources and maintain communication paths effectively among the appliances.
Here’s a breakdown of the options:
Option A: 16 – While plausible, 16 is below the actual maximum and would unnecessarily restrict the scalability of the group.
Option C: 52 – This exceeds the system-defined maximum for a security group. The orchestrator may not support maintaining active coordination across that many appliances.
Option D: 8 – This is a conservative number and may be a limit in older systems or minimal deployments, but it is not the current architectural maximum.
With 31 appliances in a security group, the platform can maintain efficiency, avoid session tracking conflicts, and allow for effective load distribution. Beyond this number, it becomes significantly more complex to manage traffic symmetry and ensure performance consistency.
Thus, for scalability and architectural integrity, 31 is the highest supported number of appliances in a single security group within the limits of standard orchestrator-managed security environments.
