Checkpoint 156-215.81.20 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions
Question 1
Which of the following is a legitimate and widely adopted deployment approach for network security appliances in enterprise environments?
A. CloudSec configuration
B. Disliked configuration
C. Router-exclusive setup
D. Standalone configuration
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
A Standalone configuration is a legitimate and widely adopted deployment approach for network security appliances in enterprise environments. In a standalone configuration, a network security appliance (such as a firewall or intrusion detection system) is deployed independently, typically to secure specific parts of a network or act as a perimeter defense. This deployment is common for ensuring strong security at the edge or for securing specific network segments, and it doesn't rely on other appliances for operational support.
A. CloudSec configuration - CloudSec configuration does not represent a widely recognized or standard deployment method for network security appliances in enterprise environments. The term "CloudSec" could refer to security practices or tools for cloud environments, but it's not a recognized standalone appliance deployment approach.
B. Disliked configuration - The term "disliked configuration" is not a standard term used in the context of network security appliances. It's likely not referring to a legitimate deployment approach.
C. Router-exclusive setup - A router-exclusive setup typically refers to configuring security at the router level, which is a common approach in some network environments. However, it's not a complete standalone solution for network security appliances, which is why it's not the most widely adopted compared to standalone configurations that specialize in security.
D. Standalone configuration is the most common and widely used approach for deploying network security appliances in enterprise environments to provide focused security measures.
Question 2
An organization is configuring roles in Check Point SmartConsole. One administrator needs full visibility into configurations, policies, and logs, but should not be able to make changes. Which permission profile is best suited for this role?
A. Read Only All
B. Full Access
C. Editor
D. Super User
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
The Read Only All permission profile is best suited for the administrator who needs full visibility into configurations, policies, and logs but should not have the ability to make any changes. This profile grants view-only access to all areas of the system, ensuring that the administrator can review and monitor the system without making modifications.
A. Read Only All - This profile allows administrators to view all configurations, policies, and logs without having the ability to make any changes, which fits the requirement of having full visibility but no edit permissions.
B. Full Access - The Full Access profile would allow the administrator to view and make changes to configurations, policies, and logs. Since the requirement specifies that the administrator should not be able to make changes, this profile is not appropriate.
C. Editor - The Editor profile provides permissions to view and edit configurations, policies, and logs, which contradicts the requirement that the administrator should not be able to make changes.
D. Super User - The Super User profile grants full administrative rights, including the ability to view, edit, and configure the system. This profile is far beyond what is needed for an administrator who should only have visibility without modification rights.
A. Read Only All is the correct permission profile for an administrator who requires full visibility but should not be able to make any changes.
Question 3
Which Check Point software blade is designed to monitor system performance and provide real-time visibility into device activity, traffic flow, and security events?
A. Logging and Status
B. Monitoring
C. Threat Emulation
D. Application Control
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Monitoring software blade in Check Point is specifically designed to monitor the performance of the system and provide real-time visibility into device activity, traffic flow, and security events. This blade allows administrators to keep track of ongoing activities, network traffic, and security incidents, ensuring they can quickly detect and address any potential issues or vulnerabilities.
Option B, Monitoring, is the correct choice. It provides a comprehensive view of the device’s health, performance metrics, and security events. This blade is used for operational monitoring, allowing users to visualize and analyze system activity in real-time. It is essential for ensuring that the security infrastructure is functioning properly and that any issues are promptly addressed.
Option A, Logging and Status, while related to monitoring, focuses more on the logging of security events and system statuses rather than providing a real-time overview of device performance and traffic flow.
Option C, Threat Emulation, is focused on emulating files and network traffic to detect advanced threats, rather than monitoring overall system performance or traffic flow.
Option D, Application Control, is focused on controlling the usage of applications within the network, but it is not primarily used for monitoring system performance or security events.
Thus, the correct answer is B, Monitoring.
Question 4
In Check Point’s licensing system, which license type is specifically tied to the IP address of a Security Management Server, making it non-transferable unless reissued or the IP is changed?
A. Formal License
B. Corporate License
C. Central License
D. Local License
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Check Point’s licensing system, the Central License is specifically tied to the IP address of a Security Management Server. This means that the license is non-transferable unless the IP address of the server changes or the license is reissued. The central license is typically used in environments where Check Point Security Management Servers are deployed and is tied directly to the server's IP for identification and management purposes.
Option C, Central License, is the correct answer. This type of license is centralized and depends on the IP address of the Security Management Server. If the IP address changes or the license is moved to a different system, it must be reissued or updated accordingly. This ensures that the licensing system maintains integrity and prevents unauthorized transfers or misuse of the license.
Option A, Formal License, does not specifically refer to the type of licensing tied to an IP address. Formal licenses are more general in nature and may not be tied to the IP of the management server.
Option B, Corporate License, refers to a broader licensing model that may apply across multiple systems within an organization but does not specify that it is tied directly to the IP of a Security Management Server.
Option D, Local License, typically refers to licenses that are tied to specific devices rather than a centralized management server, so it is not the correct choice.
Therefore, the correct answer is C, Central License.
Question 5
Which Threat Prevention blade in Check Point protects computers from infections like viruses, Trojans, and worms?
A. Anti-Malware
B. Content Awareness
C. Anti-Virus
D. IPS
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
The Anti-Virus blade in Check Point is specifically designed to protect systems from infections like viruses, Trojans, worms, and other types of malware. This blade provides real-time protection by detecting and blocking malicious files and threats before they can compromise the system. It focuses on preventing malware from executing and spreading within the network.
A. Anti-Malware - While Anti-Malware is related to malware protection, the Anti-Virus blade is the specific one that focuses on the detection and prevention of viruses, Trojans, worms, and other similar threats. Anti-Malware often refers to broader protection against various types of malware but doesn’t specifically focus on viruses.
B. Content Awareness - Content Awareness primarily deals with inspecting and controlling content within network traffic, such as scanning for sensitive data, preventing data leaks, and enforcing company policies on the use of content. It does not specifically address the protection against viruses or malware.
D. IPS - The Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is designed to monitor network traffic for potential attacks and malicious activity, blocking threats like exploits and intrusion attempts. It focuses on preventing network-based attacks rather than specific malware like viruses or Trojans.
C. Anti-Virus is the correct Threat Prevention blade for protecting against infections like viruses, Trojans, and worms.
Question 6
Which of the following is not a primary benefit of implementing URL filtering in a corporate security strategy?
A. Enforcing data security and preventing data loss
B. Avoiding legal issues from inappropriate content
C. Blocking access to harmful or malicious websites
D. Regulating network bandwidth usage by blocking heavy-content sites
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Enforcing data security and preventing data loss is not a primary benefit of URL filtering. While URL filtering can be used to block certain websites that may pose data security risks, its primary function is to manage and control web traffic based on URL categories. Data loss prevention (DLP) is typically a separate mechanism that works in conjunction with other security solutions to monitor, block, or restrict the transfer of sensitive information from a network.
A. Enforcing data security and preventing data loss - URL filtering is primarily concerned with controlling access to websites based on their URLs, not directly protecting against data loss or enforcing data security, which is the role of other tools like DLP systems.
B. Avoiding legal issues from inappropriate content - URL filtering can be used to block access to inappropriate, illegal, or unprofessional content, thus preventing potential legal issues for the organization. It is a key part of maintaining compliance with workplace policies and legal regulations.
C. Blocking access to harmful or malicious websites - A core function of URL filtering is to block harmful websites, including those that may host malware, phishing attacks, or other malicious content, thus protecting the network from cyber threats.
D. Regulating network bandwidth usage by blocking heavy-content sites - URL filtering can also help optimize network performance by blocking access to bandwidth-heavy sites (like streaming platforms or large download sites), which ensures that resources are prioritized for business-critical activities.
A. Enforcing data security and preventing data loss is not a primary benefit of URL filtering, as its focus is on controlling access to websites rather than directly addressing data security.
Question 7
Which statement correctly describes Check Point policy layers within the firewall architecture?
A. A single policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both simultaneously.
B. An inline layer is configured as a rule action within a policy rule.
C. An ordered policy refers to a sub-policy within a rule.
D. Gateways before version R80 support ordered layers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Check Point’s firewall policy architecture includes inline and ordered layers. These layers define how traffic is processed and how rules are applied.
Option D, Gateways before version R80 support ordered layers, is correct. In older Check Point versions (before R80), ordered layers were used for policy configuration. In this architecture, policies were applied in a specific order, one after another, which was more rigid and less flexible than the inline approach used in later versions.
Option A, A single policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both simultaneously, is incorrect because, in versions prior to R80, ordered layers were typically used, and inline layers were introduced later. The two layers are distinct but not mutually exclusive in how policies can be set up.
Option B, An inline layer is configured as a rule action within a policy rule, is misleading. Inline layers represent different segments of traffic inspection, but they are not defined strictly as actions within a single policy rule. Inline layers allow for more dynamic and flexible handling of traffic.
Option C, An ordered policy refers to a sub-policy within a rule, is incorrect because an ordered policy refers to the sequence in which rules and layers are applied, not a sub-policy within a single rule.
Thus, the correct answer is D, Gateways before version R80 support ordered layers.
Question 8
Check Point software licenses are built from two main components: one defines the security features, and the other acts as a container for these features. Which combination correctly represents these two components?
A. Software container; software package
B. Software package; signature
C. Signature; software blade
D. Software blade; software container
Answer: D
Explanation:
Check Point licenses consist of two primary components: the software blade and the software container. The software blade defines the specific security feature or function that is licensed, such as firewall protection, intrusion prevention, or VPN. The software container acts as a wrapper that contains one or more software blades and holds the license, ensuring that only the specific features within the container are enabled.
Option D, Software blade; software container, is correct. The software blade provides the functionality, and the software container holds and defines the limits of that functionality by grouping the blades together and managing the licenses associated with them.
Option A, Software container; software package, is incorrect because the container holds the blades, not the package, and the term "software package" is not used to describe the core components of Check Point licensing.
Option B, Software package; signature, is incorrect. The signature refers to definitions of patterns for detecting threats or malicious activities and is not a primary component of Check Point licensing structure.
Option C, Signature; software blade, is also incorrect, as the signature refers to threat detection patterns, while the software blade defines the functionality, not the license structure.
Therefore, the correct answer is D, Software blade; software container.
Question 9
What mechanism is primarily used to establish initial trust between a Check Point Gateway and its Security Management Server?
A. One-time Password
B. Token
C. Certificate
D. Internal Certificate Authority
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
The Certificate mechanism is primarily used to establish initial trust between a Check Point Gateway and its Security Management Server. Certificates are part of a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) system and are used to authenticate the gateway to the Security Management Server during the initial setup. The certificate ensures that both the gateway and the server can trust each other securely when exchanging information. This process is essential for the establishment of secure communication between the two entities and is a fundamental step in the deployment of Check Point security systems.
A. One-time Password - One-time passwords (OTPs) are temporary codes used for authentication, but they are typically used in user login scenarios, not for establishing trust between network devices like a gateway and a management server.
B. Token - A token is typically used for user authentication or in multi-factor authentication (MFA) scenarios. It is not the primary mechanism used to establish trust between Check Point devices and their Security Management Server.
D. Internal Certificate Authority - While an Internal Certificate Authority (CA) may be used within an organization to issue certificates, the mechanism that establishes trust initially between the Check Point Gateway and the Security Management Server is the use of the certificate itself, which can be issued by a CA. The CA is part of the process but not the specific mechanism of establishing trust.
C. Certificate is the correct answer as it is used to establish the initial trust between a Check Point Gateway and its Security Management Server.
Question 10
Which of the following Check Point Software Blades is specifically designed to identify and prevent intrusion attempts by detecting known attack patterns and exploits in real time?
A. Anti-Bot
B. IPS
C. Application Control
D. Threat Emulation
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
The IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) blade is specifically designed to identify and prevent intrusion attempts by detecting known attack patterns and exploits in real time. IPS uses a combination of signature-based detection, anomaly detection, and behavior analysis to block malicious activity and attacks as they occur. It provides proactive protection by detecting and mitigating threats such as vulnerabilities, exploits, and network-based attacks.
A. Anti-Bot - The Anti-Bot blade is designed to detect and block botnet activity, which is often related to malware and command-and-control communications. While it provides protection from botnets, it does not focus specifically on detecting known attack patterns and exploits in real-time like IPS.
C. Application Control - The Application Control blade is used to control and restrict the use of applications within the network. It focuses on application-level security by allowing or blocking specific applications. While important for overall network security, it does not directly detect or prevent intrusion attempts based on known attack patterns.
D. Threat Emulation - The Threat Emulation blade is designed to analyze files and detect new, unknown malware by emulating how they would behave in a sandbox environment. It helps identify potential threats that do not have known signatures, but it is not focused on detecting known attack patterns and exploits like the IPS blade.
B. IPS is the correct answer, as it is specifically designed to identify and prevent intrusion attempts by detecting known attack patterns and exploits in real-time.
